Bộ 30 đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án

Bộ 30 đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án giúp học sinh ôn luyện để đạt điểm cao trong bài thi Tiếng anh 12 Học kì 1. Mời các bạn cùng đón xem:

1170

Tải tài liệu

« Trang trước

Trang sau »

[Năm 2023] Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 1)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. reserved

B. locked

C. forced

D. touched

Question 2:

A. arrange

B. arise

C. area

D. arrive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. household

B. secure

C. pressure

D. active

Question 4:

A. supportive

B. leftovers

C. confidence

D. hospital

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: The police is (A) now investigating (B) the robbery that took place (C) in our neighborhood (D) last night.

Question 6: My pen has (A) very few ink (B) in it, so could (C) you give me some (D)?

Question 7: Neither William or (A) his brother stole (B) the rambutans from (C) our orchard (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Frankly, I don’t know how he ______on the small amount of money he earns.

A. gets down

B. gets over

C. gets at

D. gets by

Question 9: _________ my homework last week, I would have got a good mark.

A. If I did

B. I had done

C. Had I done

D. Only if I done

Question 10: Do you have any objections _________this new road?

A. at

B. with

C. to

D for

Question 11: Here is the man _________my brother is going to_________.

A. who his daughter - marry

B. whose daughter - get married to

C. whose daughter - get married

D. his daughter – marry

Question 12: He’s always trying _____________me.

A. to avoid to meet

B. avoiding meeting

C. to avoid meeting

D. avoiding to meet

Question 13: Ms Kent expects________about any revisions in manuscript before it is printed.

A. consulting

B. being consulted

C. consult

D. to be consulted

Question 14: After nine months without any rain, the country was facing one of the worst_ __________in the last thirty years.

A. draughts

B. floods

C. eruptions

D. droughts

Question 15: If my candidate had won the election, I _________ happy now.

A. am

B. would be

C. can be

D. would have been

Question 16: George and Paul are the two men _____________in my factory.

A. working

B. to work

C. work

D. worked

Question 17: How much longer do we have to wait? This is starting to get on my__________.

A. mind

B. back

C. nerves

D. nose

Question 18: I enjoy my job as a baker, but it’s taken me over five years to _________to working at night.

A. be use

B. get used

C. used

D. getting used

Question 19: I find it difficult to pay my bills as prices keep___________.

A. gaining

B. raising

C. growing

D. rising

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Lora: “Do you mind if I turn on the fan?’’ ---- Maria: “ __________.”

A. Not for me

B. Not at all

C. Never mind

D. Not enough

Question 21: Mary: " Thanks a lot for your help.’’ -------- Nick: "____________."

A. My happiness

B. My delight

C. My excitement

D. My pleasure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Once in a while I visit my grandparents on the farm and stay there for some days.

A. Regularly

B. Sometimes

C. Usually

D. Rarely

Question 23: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a masterpiece.

A. a large work of art

B. an expensive work of art

C. an exellent work of art

D. a down – to – earth work of art

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary measures.

A. physical

B. severe

C. beneficial

D. damaging

Question 25: Vietnam’s admission to the Word Trade Organization (WTO) has promoted its trade relations with other countries.

A. balanced

B. restricted

C. expanded

D. boosted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: "Why don't you get up early to do morning exercises?" Peter asked me.

A. Peter advised me to get up early to do morning exercises.

B. Peter recommended me not to get up early to do morning exercises.

C. Peter told me the reason why I did not get up early to do morning exercises.

D. Peter suggested that he should get up early to do morning exercises.

Question 27: Alan worked too hard at the office, and this led to his illness.

A. Because Alan worked too hard at the office, and this led to his illness.

B. Alan's working too hard at the office, and this led to his illness.

C. Alan's illness resulted from his working too hard at the office.

D. His working too hard at the office resulted from his illness.

Question 28: It was overeating that caused his heart attack.

A. But for his overeating, he wouldn't have had a heart attack.

B. But for his overeating, he wouldn't have a heart attack.

C. If it wasn't his overeating, he wouldn't have had a heart attack.

D. Had he had overeating, he wouldn't have had a heart attack.

Question 29: They booked the hotel. They had stayed there on their honeymoon.

A. They booked the hotel where they had stayed on their honeymoon.

B. They booked the hotel where they had stayed there on their honeymoon.

C. They booked the hotel which they had stayed on their honeymoon.

D. They booked the hotel which they had stayed there on their honeymoon.

Question 30: Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.

A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health.

B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health.

C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health.

D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the energy to get out of bed in time for school? According to a new report, today’s generation of children are in danger of getting so (31) ________ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at risk. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (32) ________ teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters gets anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.This (33)________ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s ability to concentrate at school. The concentration between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well established. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects (34)________ how children perform the next day. A good night’s sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep that they release a hormone that is essential for their “growth spurt” (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to some (35) ________, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.

Question 31:

A. less

B. little

C. few

D. much

Question 32:

A. because

B. so

C. or

D. whereas

Question 33:

A. rises

B. raises

C. comes

D. results

Question 34:

A. on

B. in

C. at

D. to

Question 35:

A. level

B. rate

C. point

D. extent

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The goal of Internet-based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give everyone on the planet access to information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains lots of information: more than 2.5 million articles in 200 different languages covering just about every subject. Unlike other encyclopedias, however, Wikipedia is not written by experts, but by ordinary people. These writers are not paid and their names are not published. They contribute to Wikipedia simply because they want to share their knowledge.

Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of human knowledge. The word itself comes from ancient Greek, and means “a complete general education”. Real popularity for encyclopedias came in the nineteenth century in Europe and the United States, with the publication of encyclopedias written for ordinary readers. With the invention of the CD-ROM, the same amount of information could be put on a few computer discs. Then with the Internet, it became possible to create an online encyclopedia that could be constantly updated, like Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even Internet-based encyclopedias like Encarta were written by paid experts. At first, Wikipedia, the brainchild of Jimmy Wales, a businessman in Chicago, was not so different from these. In 2001, he had the idea for an Internet-based encyclopedia that would provide information quickly and easily to everyone. Furthermore, that information would be available free, unlike other Internet encyclopedias at that time.

But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were needed to write the articles, and so he began by hiring experts. He soon changed his approach, however, as it took them a long time to finish their work. He decided to open up the encyclopedia in a radical new way, so that everyone would have access not only to the information, but also to the process of putting this information online. To do this, he used what is known as “Wiki” software (from the Hawaiian word for “fast”), which allows users to create or alter content on web page. The system is very simple: When you open the web site, you can simply search for information or you can log on to become a writer or editor of articles. If you find an article that interests you – about your hometown, for example – you can correct it or expand it. This process goes on until no one is interested in making any more changes.

Question 36: Wikipedia is written by___________.

A. paid written

B. millionaires

C. normal people

D. world experts

Question 37: The phrase “these writers” in the first paragraph refers to ___________.

A. ordinary readers

B. ordinary people

C. encyclopedia experts

D. every subject

Question 38: The word “brainchild” in the second paragraph of the passage can be best replaced by______.

A. child

B. father

C. born

D. product

Question 39: The word “approach” in the third paragraph of the passage means ________.

A. method

B. idea

C. writing

D. time

Question 40: The user of Wikipedia can do all of the followings EXCEPT __________.

A. have access to information

B. edit information

C. modify information

D. determinate the website

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 1

1A	2C	3B	4A	5A
6B	7A	8D	9C	10C
11B	12C	13D	14D	15B
16A	17C	18B	19D	20B
21D	22B	23C	24C	25B
26A	27C	28A	29A	30B
31B	32D	33B	34A	35D
36C	37B	38D	39B	40D

------------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 2)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. animal
B. character

C. imagine
D. personality

Question 2:

A. degree
B. critical

C. fertile
D. minimum

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. economics
B. engineering

C. information
D. geography

Question 4:
A. opponent
B. vertical
C. windsurfing
D. penalty

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each question.

Question 5: Had it not (A) been for you help me (B), I wouldn't (C) have succeeded (D).

Question 6: I enjoyed talking (A) to the (B) people with that (C) I met at the party (D) last night.

Question 7: It is vitally (A) important that (B) she takes (C) this medication (D) night and morning.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Look! The yard is wet. It ___ last night.

A. couldn’t have rained

B. must rain

C. must have rained

D. should have rained

Question 9: I live next to a nursing home for _____ very old.

A. the
B. a
C. an
D. ∅

Question 10: My problems are getting _______.

A. more and more bad

B. bader and bader

C. worse and worse

D. the worse and worse

Question 11: What happened _______ their car broke down on the motorway so they didn’t get to Joe’s wedding on time.

A. to be that

B. being that

C. was that

D. to that

Question 12: According to this newspaper, John is said ____ a new record for the long jump.

A. establishing

B. to establish

C. established

D. to have established

Question 13: Is he guilty or innocent _____ the crime?

A. in
B. from
C. of
D. by

Question 14: This is very _______! Can’t you practise your violin somewhere else?

A. convenient

B. conveniently

C. inconvenient

D. convenience

Question 15: The child was told to _____ for being rude to his uncle.

A. excuse

B. apologize

C. forgive

D. confess

Question 16: I just couldn’t remember her name even though it was on the _____ of my tongue.

A. edge
B. tip

C. top
D. front

Question 17: “I’m going for an interview for a job this afternoon.” “Good luck! I’ll keep my ______ crossed for you”

A. legs
B. fingers

C. arms
D. hands

Question 18: She is a friendly person. She gets ______ all her neighbours.

A. up well with

B. down well with

C. on well with

D. get off with

Question 19: Look this document ________carefully before you sign it.

A. up
B. on

C. at
D. over

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Susan accidentally stepped on Denise’s foot.

- Susan: “Oops! I’m sorry, Denise.”
- Denise: “ ______”

A. You shouldn’t do that.

B. It’s alright.
C. You are welcome.

D. It’s nonsense.

Question 21: Mai and Nam are talking about the cell phone that Nam has just bought.
- Mai: “Wow, I’ve never seen such a nice cell phone, Nam”

- Nam: “_____”.

A. Oh, I don’t know.

B. Thank you. I’m glad you like it.

C. You’re welcome.

D. I agree with you.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 22: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing.

A. wealthy

B. kind
C. broke

D. poor

Question 23: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.

A. earn money

B. spend money

C. sit still

D. economize

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.

A. dissatisfied

B. excited

C. shocked

D. interested

Question 25: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.

A. large quantity

B. excess

C. small quantity

D. sufficiency

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: We have run out of the items you want.

A. We have to run out to buy the items you want.

B. The items you want are out of our shop.

C. For the items you want, we must run out.

D. The items you want have been out of stock.

Question 27: She had only just begun to speak when people started interrupting.

A. She hardly had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

B. Hardly she had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

C. Hardly had she begun to speak when people started interrupting.

D.She hadn’t begun to speak when people started interrupting.

Question 28: “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man.

A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.

D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.

Question 29: Marry loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn’t sleep without it.

A. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep with it.

B. As Marry couldn’t sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.

C. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal though she couldn’t sleep without it.

D. When Marry was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.

Question 30: The fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames. The building burned down completely.

A. The building burned down completely though the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames.

B. Had it not been for the fire-fighters’ every effort, the building would have burned down completely.
C. Making every effort to put off the flames, the fire-fighters completely burned down the building.

D. Since the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned down completely.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The threat to the Environment

Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in danger. Many species of animals will become (31) ____ if we do not make an effort to protect them.There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are (32) ____ for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught alive and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat - the place where they live - is (33) _____. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and (34) ____ wildlife. The most successful animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones (35) ____, unless we can solve this problem

Question 31:

A. disappeared
B. vanished
C. empty
D. extinct

Question 32:

A. hunted
B. chased
C. game
D. extinct

Question 33:

A.exhausting
B. departing

C. escaping
D. disappearing

Question 34:

A. spoil
B. harm
C. wound
D. wrong

Question 35:

A. survived
B. over

C. missing
D. left

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.

On March 15, Dunes View Middle School held a contest for school bands. Student bands tried out for the opportunity to perform at the school picnic, which will be held at the end of June. The winner of the contest was the band called Four Square. “We’re very proud that we won the contest and are excited to perform at the picnic,” says Peter Zandt, who plays the guitar in the band. “And since we hope to perform someday at other local places, like restaurants and parks, this will be a great first step.”

The contest was the creation of music teacher Mr. Lopez and drama teacher Ms. Cho. The two thought of the idea while discussing recent years’ school picnics. “The picnic is one of the biggest events of the year, but it has become a bit formulaic,” said Ms. Cho. “The activities are the same every year. We thought that a performance by a student band would make the school picnic more interesting and fun.” Mr. Lopez, Ms. Cho, and three other teachers judged the contest, which took place in the gym. Eight student bands signed up to audition. The bands varied in their musical forms: there were several rock bands, a folk band, and even a jazz band. “I’m disappointed that my band didn’t win, but I think the judges made the right choice,” says student Marisol Varga, a member of the folk trio called The Bell Girls. “Four Square is really good.”
To see if the bands could present a wide range of musical skills, the teachers asked them each to prepare two songs: one song with original words, and another in which students played instrumental music only. The judges finally chose the band Four Square as the winner of the contest. Four Square is a rock band with an unusual twist: it includes a violin player! The members of Four Square write their own songs and practice three times a week after school. Students and teachers agreed that the band competition was a big success. All are looking forward to the school picnic in June.

Question 36: Which would be the most appropriate headline for the article?

A. Famous Band Visits School

B. Teachers Give Music Lessons
C. Students Have Fun at School Picnic

D. School Holds Student Band Contest

Question 37: What is probably true about school picnics in recent years?

A. They were held in March.

B. They were not very exciting.

C. They were very hard to organize.

D. They included musical performances

Question 38: The word formulaic is closest in meaning to _____.

A. expensive

B. uncertain
C. long

D. dull

Question 39: What type of band is NOT mentioned in the article?

A. Pop

B. Jazz

C. Folk

D. Rock

Question 40: Why did the teachers ask each band to play two songs?

A. To decide which songs to play at the picnic

B. To see if the bands could play a variety of songs
C. To make sure the contest did not go on too long

D. To make the concert more enjoyable for students

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 2

1B 2C 3D 4A 5B

6C 7C 8C 9A 10C

11C 12D 13C 14C 15B

16B 17B 18C 19D 20B

21B 22A 23D 24A 25C

26D 27C 28A 29D 30A

31D 32A 33D 34B 35D

36D 37B 38D 39A 40B
-----------------------------------------------------------------
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 3)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. muddy
B. punctual

C. studious
D. culture

Question 2:

A. land
B. sandy

C. many
D. candy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. adventure
B. attendance
C. opponent
D. penalty

Question 4:

A. represent
B. permanent

C. continent
D. sentiment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: When the protestor entered the meeting clad only in a beach tower, the audience was dumbfounded.

A. speechless

B. excited

C. content

D. applauding

Question 6: His new work has enjoyed a very good review from critics and readers.

A. opinion

B. viewing

C. look

D. regard

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: The motorist felt that the ticket for infraction was unwarranted.

A. conscientious

B. inadvertent

C. inevitable

D. justified

Question 8: On November 25 1972, something dreadful happened on board of the brigantine Mary Celeste, causing all crew members to hastily abandon the ship.

A. hold on
B. stay on

C. take care of

D. save for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9: Humans (A) have done (B) great advances (C) in technology at the expense (D) of the environment.

Question 10: Hardly did he enter (A) the room when (B) all the lights (C) went (D) out.

Question 11: Publishing in the UK (A), the book has won (B) a number of awards in (C) recent regional book fairs (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer

Question 12: Labor unions and the company______ in a confrontation over plans to curb benefits.

A. carried away

B. faced off

C. caught up

D. showed up

Question 13: What university will you take an_________ examination into?

A. entrance

B. entry

C. admission

D. attendance

Question 14: At first the children enjoyed the game but quite soon _______ novelty.

A. died out

B. wore off

C. went off

D. died out

Question 15: Although he claimed to have left his job voluntarily, he was actually__________ for misconduct.

A. released

B. dismissed
C. resigned

D. dispelled

Question 16: ______ the fifth largest among the night planets that make up our solar system.

A. The Earth is

B. The Earth being

C. That the Earth

D. Being the Earth

Question 17: ________ but he also proves himself a good athlete.

A. Not only did he show himself a good student

B. Not only he showed himself a good student

C. He did not show himself only a good student

D. A good student not only showed himself

Question 18: It is recommended that he__________ this course.

A. took

B. take

C. takes

D. taking

Question 19: Our boss would rather_________ during the working hours.

A. us not chat
B. we didn’t chat

C. we don’t chat

D. us not chatting

Question 20: The sky was cloudy and foggy. We went to the beach, _________.

A. so

B. yet

C. however

D. even though

Question 21: Do you think doing the household chores is the__________of the women only?

A. responsibly

B. responsible

C. responsibility

D. responsive

Question 22: He did some odd jobs at home__________.

A. disappointment

B. disappointedly

C. disappointed

D. disappoint

Question 23: “I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!” –“__________”

A. What a lovely toy! Thanks.

B. Have a nice day!

C. The same to you!

D. What a pity!

Question 24: My sister is often sick because she doesn’t do physical exercise.

A. If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick.

B. If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick.

C. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick.

D. If my sister wasn’t physical exercise, she would do sick.

Question 25: He read The Old Man and The Sea, a novel__________by Ernest Hemingway.

A. written

B. writing

C. which written

D. that wrote

Question 26: If you don’t work much harder, you won’t pass the exam.

Unless you__________much harder, you__________the exam.

A. work / will pass

B. don’t work / will pass

C. don’t work / won’t pass

D. work / won’t pass

Question 27: It was nice of you to give me the present. Thank you” Ben said to Mary. Ben thanked Mary__________the present.

A. of giving him

C. for giving him

B. it had been nice of her to give him

D. that she had been nice to give him

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 28: “You shouldn’t have leaked our confidential report to the press, Frank!” said Jane.

A. Jane suspected that Frank had leaked their confidential report to the press.

B. Jane criticized Frank for having disclosed their confidential report to the press.

C. Jane accused Frank of having cheated the press with their confidential report.

D. Jane blamed Frank for having flattered the press with their confidential report.

Question 29: “Don’t forget to tidy up the final draft before submission,” the team leader told us.

A. The team leader ordered us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

B. The team leader reminded us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

C. The team leader asked us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

D. The team leader simply wanted us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

Question 30: “If you don’t pay the ransom, we’ll kill your boy,” the kidnappers told us.

A. The kidnappers ordered to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.

B. The kidnappers pledged to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.

C. The kidnappers threatened to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.

D. The kidnappers promised to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as well, especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contact certain illnesses because of the characteristic foods they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized that nitrates nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meat) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging label of processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows.
Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medical purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest. Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food without our knowledge.

Question 31: How has science done to disservice to people?

A. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our food

B. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetable

C. It caused a lack of information concerning the value of food

D. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.

Question 32: The word “prone” is nearest meaning to_________.

A. healthy

B. unlikely

C. supine

D. predisposed

Question 33: The word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to_________.

A. trouble-making

B. money-making

C. cancer-causing

D. colorretaining

Question 34: What are nitrates used for?

A. They preserve the color of meat

B. They preserve flavor in package food

C. There are objects of research

D. They cause the animals become fatter

Question 35: FDA means____________.

A. Federal Dairy Additives

B. Food and Drug Administration

C. Final Difficult Analysis

D. Food Direct Additives

Question 36: All of the following statements are TRUE except

A. Drug are always given to animals for medical reasons

B. Food may cause forty percent of the cancer in the world

C. Researchers have known about the potential hazard of food additives for more than 45 years

D. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals

Question 37: What is best title for this passage?

A. The food you eat can affect your health

B. Harmful and Harmless substances in food

C. Avoiding injurious substances in food

D. Improving health through a Natural Diet

Question 38: The word “fit” could be best replaced by which of the following?

A. suitable

B. tasty

C. athletic

D. adaptable

Question 39: The word “these” refers to___________?

A. researchers

B. nitrates and nitrites

C. meats

D. colors

Question 40: The word “additives” is closest meaning to__________.

A. begin substance

B. natural substance

C. dangerous substance

D. added substance

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 3

1C 2C 3D 4A 5A

6A 7D 8B 9B 10A

11A 12B 13A 14B 15B

16A 17A 18B 19B 20C

21C 22C 23B 24A 25C

26D 27C 28B 29B 30C

31A 32D 33C 34A 35B

36A 37A 38A 39B 40D
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 4)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. needed
B. decided

C. invented
D. caused

Question 2:

A. bomb
B. tomb

C. combat
D. comment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in theposition of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. university
B. sociology
C. examination
D. geographical

Question 4:

A. nature
B. agricultural

C. forget
D. begin

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Paris is much (A) more exciting (B) as (C) I expected (D).

Question 6: English (A) is speaking (B) in many countries (C) in the world (D).

Question 7: Chemical engineering is based in (A) the principles (B) of physics, chemistry (C), and mathematics (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Lan likes music, _________?

A. doesn’t she
B. does she

C. is she
D. isn’t she

Question 9: If I ___ you, I would apply for that English course.

A. am
B. were

C. had been
D. is

Question 10: I decided _________ the dictionary you told me about.

A. bought
B. buy

C. buying
D. to buy

Question 11: Nowadays a large number of young people spend much time_________the Internet.
A. to surfing
B. surfed

C. surfing
D. to surf

Question 12: It was not until he failed the final examination _____ he realized how important the revision was.

A. that
B. who
C. what
D. and

Question 13: We will go out _________ the rain stops.

A. until
B. during

C. while
D. when

Question 14: He would not have been late for school if he _________ up early.

A. has got
B. got

C. had got
D. gets

Question 15: John lost the _________bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him because of his carelessness .

A. Japanese beautiful new blue

B. new beautiful blue Japanese
C. beautiful Japanese blue new

D. beautiful new blue Japanese

Question 16: _________you pass a chemist’s, will you get me some aspirins?.

A. Did
B. Should

C. Would
D. Had

Question 17: Did you arrive at the station on time? – No, I missed 5 o’clock train; _________ the was an other one after 5 minutes.

A. Thus
B. Also

C. However
D. Besides

Question 18: Hardly _________ when the argument begins.

A. when he arrived

B. he had arrived

C. than he arrived

D. had he arrived

Question 19: The film was really boring. It was _________ I’ve seen.

A. the most boring film

B. most boring film

C. the more boring film

D. the film more boring

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - “Would you like something to eat?” - “ ______ . I am not hungry now.”

A. No, thanks
B. Good idea, thanks

C. Thanks, I will

D. Yes, I would

Question 21: Mary (on the phone) : “Could I speak to Susan?” - Susan : “ _________!”

A. Talking

B. Calling

C. Answering

D. Speaking

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The cultural and historical sites in Kyoto have been given appropriate care and maintenance.

A. preservation

B. revival

C. recovery

D. recognition

Question 23: Our parents join hands to give us a nice house and a happy home.

A. make decisions

B. put together

C. take each other’s hands

D. work together

Shooling is compulsory for all English children from age 5 to 16.

Question 24:

A. free

B. optional

C. constructive

D. beneficial

Question 25: The original World Cup trophy was given permanently to Brazil to honor that country’s record third World Cup title in 1970.

A. for good

B. lastingly

C. for age

D. temporarily

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “I will help you with the housework”, Mai said.

A. Mai promised to help me with the housework.

B. Mai asked me to help her with the housework.

C. Mai begged to help me with the housework.

D. Mai insisted on helping me with the housework.

Question 27: They couldn’t go swimming because of the cold weather.

A. The cold weather made it impossible to go swimming.

B. The cold weather prevented them from going swimming

C. Their going swimming was unable due to the cold weather.

D. The cold weather made it not capable of going swimming.

Question 28: I can’t help feeling worried about David.

A. I find it impossible not to worry about David.

B. I don’t worry about David.

C. I can do nothing to help David.

D. I cannot help David stop worrying.

Question 29: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.

A. A waitress, who served us, was very impolite and impatient.

B. A waitress, which served us, was very impolite and impatient.

C. A waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient.

D. A waitress whom served us, was very impolite and impatient.

Question 30: He was successful because he was determined to purse personal goals. He was not talented.

A. It was his determination to purse personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.

B. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursing his goals.

C. His success lay in his natural ability, not his determination to purse personal goals.

D. His determination to purse personal goals made him successful and talented.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Always arrive early. If you do not know (31) _____ the organization is located, call for exact directions (32) ___ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected events. If you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 - 10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with respect. Be (33) _____ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door. Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (34) ____ are extremely important in the interview process. Women should (35) _____ wearing too much jewelry or make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a tailored suit.

Question 31:

A. when
B. why

C. where
D. that

Question 32:
A. with
B. in
C. on
D. for

Question 33:

A. happy
B. pleasant

C. disappointed
D. excited

Question 34:

A. attendances
B. attentions
C. impressions
D. pressures

Question 35:

A. avoid
B. suggest

C. enjoy
D. mind

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking and diplomacy.

Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world..

Question 36: What is the main topic of this passage?

A. The number of non-native users of English.

B. The French influence on the English Language.

C. The expansion of English as an international language.

D. The use of English for science and technology.

Question 37: In the first paragraph, the word “emerged” is closest in meaning to____.

A. appeared

B. disappeared

C. frequented

D. engaged

Question 38: In the first paragraph, the word “elements” is closest in meaning to____.

A. declaration

B. features

C. curiosities

D. customs

Question 39: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?

A. In 1066

B. around 1350
C. before 1600

D. after 1600

Question 40: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world _________

A. the slave trade
B. the Norman invasion

C. missionaries

D. colonization

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 4

1D 2B 3C 4A 5C

6B 7A 8A 9B 10D

11C 12A 13D 14C 15D

16B 17C 18D 19A 20A

21D 22C 23D 24B 25D

26A 27B 28A 29A 30C

31C 32B 33B 34C 35A

36C 37A 38B 39D 40B

----------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 5)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fitseach of thenumbered blanks from 1 to 5.

SHE STUDIES WHILE HE PLAYS: TRUE OF CHILDREN AND CHIMPS

Chimpanzees in the wild like to snack on termites, and youngsters learn to fish for them by pocking long sticks and other (1)……..tools into the mounds that large groups of termites build. Researchers found that (2)…………average female chimps in the Gombe National Park in Tanzania learnt how to do termite fishing at the age of 31 months, more than two years earlier than the males.The females seem to learn by watching mothers. Researcher Dr. Elisabeth V. Lonsdorf, director of field conservation at the Lincoln Park Zoo in Chicago, said that it is (3)………….to find that, when a young male and female are near a mound, ‘she’s really focusing on termite fishing and he’s spinning himself round (4)………..circles’. Dr Landsdorf and colleagues are studying chimpanzees at the zoo with a new, specially created termite mound, filled with mustard (5)…….than termites.

Question 1:

A. relative

B. similar

C. close

D. connected

Question 2:

A. at

B. by

C. on

D. for

Question 3:

A. typical

B. regular

C. ordinary

D. frequent

Question 4:

A. in

B. with

C. to

D. through

Question 5:

A. other

B. else

C. instead

D. rather

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of thequestions from 6 to 12.

Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop

Uncompromising as it is, the dessert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water – loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found: the giants of the North America desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift – footed, running, and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its populations are largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere in the world.

The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun – baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.

Question 6: What is the topic of the passage?

A. Life underground

B. Animal life in a desert environment

C. Desert plants

D. Man’s life in the desert

Question 7: The word “desiccating” means____.

A. humidifying

B. killing

C. drying

D. life threatening

Question 8: The phrase “those forms” refers to all of the following EXCEPT

A. water – loving animals

B. moist – skinned animals

C. many large animals

D. the bobcat

Question 9: The author states that one characteristic of animals that live in the desert is that they ____.

A. are less healthy than animals that live in different places

B. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals

C. can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees

D. live in an accommodating environment

Question 10: Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?

A. All living things adjust to their environments.

B. Healthy animals live longer lives.

C. Water is the basis of life.

D. Desert life is colorful.

Question 11: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to____.

A. large animals

B. the forest animals

C. water – loving

D. the desert population.

Question 12: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT

A. they dig home underground

B. they are noisy and aggressive

C. they are ready to hunt after sunset

D. they sleep during the day

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of thequestions from 13 to 20.

Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it was noted that troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers – you’re – out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning , a nine man team. “The New York Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was it was played by and for gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners.During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism (charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first - nine, and their” muffins“ (the gently duffers who once ran the game) . Beginning with the first openly all – salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional baseball players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s “Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a weekly periodical “The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Mid-west proclaimed itself the American League.

Question 13: What is the passage mainly about?

A. the origin of baseball.

B. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball

C. the commercialization of baseball.

D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century

Question 14: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. the “New York “spread rapidly because it was better formalize.

B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism that develop in baseball.

C. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”.

D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits.

Question 15: The word “inception” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. requirements

B. rules

C. insistence

D. beginning

Question 16: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its inception?

A. they didn’t play on weekend

B. the president would choose teams from among the members

C. a team might consist of 40 members

D. they might be called “duffers” if they didn’t make the first nine.

Question 17: According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true except____.

A. commercialism became more prosperous

B. the clubs are smaller

C. outstanding players got extra income

D. people gambled on the outcome of game

Question 18: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?

A. profits soared

B. a weekly periodical news

C. wooden stadiums replaced open fields

D. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed.

Question 19: The word “itself” in line 24 refers to____.

A. the Western League

B. growing cities

C. the Midwest

D. the American League

Question 20: The word “lavish “in line 11 is closest in meaning to____.

A. very generous

B. prolonged

C. Grand

D. extensive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicatethe word whose underlined part differs from theother three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 21:

A. requests

B. calculates

C. questions

D. attacks

Question 22:

A. civic

B. service

C. fertile

D. determine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in theposition of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 23:

A. contribute

B. dynamics

C. imagine

D. devastate

Question 24:

A. habitat

B. expansion

C. endanger

D. agreement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 25: Tom said that he was trying (A) to carry out some (B) campaigns (C) to protect environment and will encourage others (D) to do so.

Question 26: My elder (A) sisters, both of them (B) were doctors, said they were too busy (C) to pick (D) me up.

Question 27: Tropical (A) rain forests are founded (B) in a (C) belt around the Equator of (D) the Earth.

Question 28: It is very (A) difficult for (B) her to prevent (C) him for smoking (D) in her house.

Question 29: If we cannot save (A) the forests in their original (B) state, we must save enough (C) to preserve them as living burgeon ecosystem (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 30: The students in class were made _____ very hard

A. learning

B. learn

C. to learn

D. having learnt

Question 31: ____ umbrella should not be used during ______ thunderstorm.

A. a/a

B. the/a

C. an/a

D. no article/ a

Question 32: I have had a toothache for one week but I still keep _____ going to the dentist.

A. put on

B. taking off

C. take on

D. putting off

Question 33: She hasn’t had a _____ week. She seems to have done nothing at all.

A. productive

B. enthusiastic

C. economic

D. extensive

Question 34: The police have not found the robbers yet and the bank robbery is still under ____

A. provision

B. investigation

C. explanation

D. division

Question 35:

A. the verge

B. a risk

C. a verge

D. stake

Question 36: The university ____ by private funds as well as by tuition income and grants.

A. supports

B. is supported

C. is supporting

D. has supported

Question 37: She always complained ___ her parents ___ how small her room was or how few clothes she had.

A. with/ for

B. with/about

C. to/ about

D. to/ for

Question 38: A native speaker of Spanish, for example, will __ to learn than a native speaker of Chinese

A. find Portuguese much easier

B. find that Portuguese is much easy

C. find Portuguese much easy

D. find Portuguese is much easier

Question 39: I couldn’t help ____ when I saw your face after making up.

A. to laugh.

B. for laughing

C. laughing

D. laughed

Question 40: When she _____ at the new dress for half part an hour, she asked how much it

A. have looked/cost

B. had looked/cost

C. has been looking/costed

D. looked/costs

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 5

1B	2C	3A	4A	5D
6B	7C	8C	9B	10A
11D	12B	13D	14A	15D
16A	17C	18D	19A	20A
21C	22C	23D	24A	25C
26B	27B	28D	29D	30C
31C	32D	33A	34B	35A
36B	37C	38A	39C	40B

----------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 6)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. mean

B. head

C. lead

D. beat

Question 2:

A. finished

B. washed

C. passed

D. attended

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. office

B. begin

C. destroy

D. complain

Question 4:

A. labour

B. formal

C. dangerous

D. effective

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Reading can’t make your life longer, but reading really makes your life more thicker.

A. Reading

B. longer

C. makes

D. more thicker

Question 6: Because there are less members present tonight than there were last night, we must wait until the next meeting to vote.

A. less

B. present

C. were

D. must

Question 7: Because of him request and his bothering me all the time, I’m finishing the project myself.

A. him

B. project

C. bothering

D. the time

Question 8: The more you study, the smartest you will become.

A. The more

B. study

C. the smartest

D. will become

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning tothe underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: Ask Mum for permission to go out now. She looks like she’s in a good mood.

A. fashionable

B. unconcerned

C. healthful

D. happy

Question 10: The ASIAN was set up on August 8^th, 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand.

A. established

B. begun

C. seen

D. proved

Question 11: The Asian Games have advanced in all aspects since the first Games was help in 1951.

A. developed

B. competed

C. taken place

D. decreased

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 12: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.

A. reluctant.

B. occupied

C. free

D. confident

Question 13: The earth is being threatened and the future looks bad.

A. varied

B. defended

C. done

D. made

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Question 14: While I.......along the road, I saw an accident.

A. had cycled

B. cycled

C. have cycled

D. was cycling

Question 15: _________ he had a suggestion he didn’t raise his hand.

A. because

B. Although

C. However

D. Therefore

Question 16: Grandma broke________ in tears when we told her about dad and Mum's divorce.

A. forth

B. off

C. down

D. up

Question 17: _________ you finish typing that report, make five copies of it and give it to the officers.

A. While

B. When

C. But

D. Although

Question 18: You_________carry that carpel home yourself; the shop will send it.

A. can’t

B. couldn’t

C. needn’t

D. mustn’t

Question 19: It was the_________ day of my life when I heard I failed the university entrance examination.

A. sadden

B. saddest

C. sad

D. sadly

Question 20: Vietnam has a lot of ________ players who won many gold medals in The 22^nd SEA Games.

A. outstanding

B. outstretching

C. outlying

D. outgoing

Question 21: She’s very old and can’t live alone. She needs someone to look_________her.

A. for

B. at

C. up

D. after

Question 22: The_________ you are, the more quickly you learn.

A. more young

B. youngest

C. younger

D. young

Question 23: The_________for women’s rights began in the 18^th century.

A. battle

B. war

C. struggle

D. fight

Question 24: Linda was shocked when I disagreed with her. She’s so used to getting her own________.

A. views

B. mind

C. way

D. opinion

Question 25: Thailand ________ Vietnam just one goal in the final in The 22^nd SEA Games.

A. won

B. beat

C. knocked

D. scored

Question 26: I can't find my book anywhere; I ___ it at home.

A. must leave

B. must be left

C. must have being left

D. must have left

Question 27: ___ you work, ___you will get.

A. The harder/ the best result

B. The harder/ the better result

C. The more hard/ the better result

D. The hard/ the good result

Question 28:The bomb went off in the crowded street, but fortunately no one was seriously hurt.

A. exploded

B. landed

C. rang

D. burned

Question 29: The company expanded rapidly. It grew ___ all the time.

A. the bigger and bigger

B. bigger and bigger

C. more and more big

D. the bigger and the bigger

Question 30:- I think married women should not go to work.

- _____. It's too boring to be housewives all their lives.

A. What nonsense!

B. That's right!

C. Absolutely!

D. I quite agree.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Until the 19^th century, the denial of equal rights to women met with only occasional protest and drew little attention from most people. Because most women lacked the educational and economic resources that would enable them to challenge the prevailing social order, women generally accepted their inferior status as their only option. At this time, women shared these disadvantages with the majority of working class men, as many social, economic, and political rights were restricted to the wealthy elite [phần tử ưu tú]. In the 19^th century, as governments in Europe and North America began to draft new laws guaranteeing equality among men, significant numbers of women – and some men – began to demand that women be accorded equal rights as well.

At the same time, the Industrial Revolution in Europe and North America further divided the roles of men and women. Before the Industrial Revolution most people worked in farming or crafts-making, both of which took place in or near the home. Men and women usually divided the numerous tasks among themselves and their children. Industrialization led male workers to seek employment outside of the home in factories and other large-scale [extensivve]enterprises. The growing split between home and work reinforced the idea that women’s “rightful place” was in the home, while men belonged in the public world of employment and politics.

Organized efforts by women to achieve greater rights occurred in two major waves. The first wave began around the mid-19^thcentury, when women in the United States and elsewhere campaigned to gain suffrage [ right to vote in political elections]– that is, the right to vote. This wave lasted until the 1920s, when several countries granted women suffrage.

Question 31: Why did the denial of equal rights to women draw little attention from the society until the 19^th century?

A. They could not challenge the prevailing social order.

B. They did not have any other option.

C. Most women lacked the educational and economic resources.

D. All are correct.

Question 32: Until the 19^th century, what was the status of the working class men in the society?

A. They had the same rights as women.

B. They had no right at all.

C. They did not have much power compared to the wealthy people.

D. They had much power in the society.

Question 33: When did the women’s movement start in Western countries?

A. in the 18^th century

B. in the late 18^th century

C. in the 19^th century

D. in the early 20^th century

Question 34: What did the effect of the Industrial Revolution in Europe and North America bring about?

A. Male workers tried to seek employment outside of the home.

B. It did not bring the equality to women.

C. Well-educated, upper-class men controlled most positions of employment and power in society.

D. All are correct.

Question 35: What was the aim of the women’s movement in the United States in the 1920s?

A. to gain the right to have much power in the society

B. to gain the right to vote

C. to gain the right to go to work in the factory

D. to have the complete equality to men

Read the following passage and m ark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The 25th Southeast Asian Games was scheduled to be (36)________ in Vientiane, Laos, in 2009. This was the first time the country (37)_________ a Southeast Asian Games. It also commemorated the 50 years of the SEA Games.Two white elephants which (38)________ Laos once "the kingdom of million elephants" were chosen as the Official Mascots. The (39)________ of the elephants are Ms. Champee and Mr. Champa (40)___________ the national flower of Laos. It was believed that they would bring (41)________ fortune and prosperity.There (42)________ 25 sports in the 25th SEA Games. The number should not be more or less in order to exactly match the 25th SEA Games.

Question 36:

A. organize

B. organizing

C. organization

D. organized

Question 37:

A. made

B. set up

C. chose

D. held

Question 38:

A. made

B. was

C. told

D. symbolized

Question 39:

A. titles

B. symbols

C. names

D. calls

Question 40:

A. sent

B. represented

C. participated

D. brouhgt

Question 41:

A. good

B. bad

C. happiness

D. unlucky

Question 42:

A. had

B. happened

C. were

D. occurred

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 43: ~ James: " How far is it from here to the post office?" ~ Tommy: "____________”

A. About two kilometers

B. It takes me 2 hours.

C. Thanks for you help

D. It's very kind of you.

Question 44: ~ Jim: “ I have a terrible headache.” ~ Lan : “ ___________”

A. Maybe I’m not going to the doctor’s.

B. Not very well. Thanks.

C. Maybe you should take a rest.

D. Not bad. I’m not going to the doctor’s.

Question 45: ~ Tom: “Your boss looks like the aggressive type.” ~ Jane: “__________”

A. You can say that again

B. Yes, he’s quite gentle.

C. Really? I’ve never seen him lie.

D. Right. He ‘s so quiet.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: She has always got on well with the children.

A. She has always looked up to the children.

B. She is trying a good relationship with the children.

C. She has always been on good terms with the children.

D. She has always had personal relationship with the children.

Question 47: As he grows older, he becomes increasingly intelligent.

A. The older he grows, the more intelligent he becomes.

B. The older he grew, the more intelligent he becomes.

C. The oldest he grows, the more intelligent he becomes.

D. The older he grows, more intelligent he becomes.

Question 48: The birthday cake is too big for us to eat.

A. The birthday cake is so big for us to eat.

B. The birthday cake is so big that we can’t eat it.

C. The birthday cake is enough big for us to eat.

D. The birthday cake is too big for us that eating.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Sue and Brian met. Shortly after that, he announced they were getting married.

A. As soon as Sue and Brian met, they announced they were getting married.

B. Until Sue and Brian met, they had announced they were getting married.

C. Right at the time Brian met Sue, he announced they were getting married.

D. Scarcely had Sue and Brian met when he announced they were getting married.

Question 50:When I heard the telephone ring, I answered it immediately.

A. On hear the phone rang, I answered it immediately.

B. On hear the phone ring, I answered it immediately.

C. On hearing the phone ring, I answered it immediately.

D. On hearing rang, I answered the phone immediately.

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tieegs anh 12 - Đề số 6

1B	11A	21D	31D	41A
2D	12B	22C	32C	42C
3A	13B	23C	33C	43A
4D	14D	24C	34D	44C
5D	15B	25B	35B	45A
6A	16C	26D	36D	46C
7A	17B	27B	37D	47A
8C	18C	28A	38D	48B
9D	19B	29B	39C	49D
10A	20A	30A	40B	50C

----------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 7)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

A. design

B. persuade

C. pursue

D. increase

A. donate

B. imitate

C. operate

D. private

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

A. rewarding

B. fascinating

C. tedious

D. challenging

A. compliment

B. determine

C. optimist

D. marvellous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

5. By the end of the 21st century, scientists are discovering the cure for the common cold.

A. the end of

B. 21st century

C. are discovering

D. for

6. The shopkeeper wanted the boys don’t lean their bicycles against his windows.

A. shopkeeper

B. don’t

C. their

D. against

7. Although her friends tried to persuade her to apply for the job at a local factory, but Christine refused to make an application.

A. Although

B. tried to persuade

C. to apply

D. but

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

8. Have you had any news about that ___ you applied for yet?

A. work

B. job

C. career

D. vacancy

9. If my application is successful, I will be able to start work from 15th of August when I finish all my exams. I am ___ my CV with this letter.

A. mending

B. attaching

C. closing

D. enclosing

10. Hellen usually ___ her childhood with great pleasure.

A. talks back to

B. thinks back on

C. turns back to

D. falls back on

11. Many students ___ school to set up their own businesses and become self-employed.

A. move out of

B. cut down on

C. drop out of

D. drop in on

12. By the time Ryan finally graduated from high school, he ___ five different schools because his parents move frequenlty.

A. attended

B. was attending

C. had attended

D. has been attending

13. Some shops advertise their products and services in the newspaper to ___ customers.

A. encourage

B. attract

C. interest

D. promote

14. Why were you acting ___ you hadn’t seen the boss?

A. the way

B. as though

C. like

D. as

15. Unless you ___ me about Sue’s new bobhair, I wouldn’t have noticed.

A. had told

B. hadn’t told

C. told

D. didn’t tell

16. ___ with passion for teaching help raise the test scores of their students.

A. Highly motivated tutor

B. Highly motivated tutors

C. Tutors are highly motivated

D. Being highly motivated tutors

17. It seems that ___ my uncle travels abroad he forgets to take something he needs.

A. whenever

B. by the time

C. not until

D. however

18. Hayden spent ___ money buying food that he didn’t have enough left to buy a soft drink.

A. such a

B. a lot

C. too many

D. so much

19. A ___ described what he saw moments after the car bomb had exploded.

A. passer-by

B. by-passer

C. pass-by

D. by-pass

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

20. Lan: “Do you think your schooldays are the happiest days of your life? - Nam: “___________”

A. I believe schooldays last forever.

B. Were you happy during your schooldays?

C. I think so. We are worry-free and full of ambitions in the schooldays.

D. We didn’t have schooldays when we were at school.

21. Hung: “How much do you earn in your new job?” - Xen: “ ______”

A. That’s a bit nosey of you

B. You shouldn’t ask that

C. I’m not your slave

D. You can be so bossy at times!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

22. Lucy has just finished her A-levels and she has got a place at university, but she would really like a break from the academic world. Therefore, she decides to take a gap year and travel around the world.

A. a year off

B. a year out

C. a year away

D. a year’s trip

23. Nowadays, lifelong learning is facilitated by e-learning platforms.

A. insisted

B. assisted

C. assessed

D. accessed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

24. Thanks to lifelong learning, people’s level of awareness has improved significantly.

A. has increases

B. has declined

C. has gone up

D. has bettered

25. I’d go mad if I had to do a dead-end job like to working on a supermarket checkout.

A boring

B. monotonous

C. fascinating

D. demanding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

26. “Why did you apply for the job?” her mother asked.

A. Her mother wanted to know the reason she applied for the job.

B. Her mother wanted to know the reason she had applied for the job.

C. Her mother wanted to know why did she apply for the job.

D. Her mother wanted to know why had she applied for the job.

27. I am on the tenth page of the report I am writing.

A. I have completed writing ten pages of the report.

B. Tonight I’m going to write the tenth page of the report.

C. So far I have written ten pages of the report.

D. I have finished writng the report on the tenth page.

28. I did far better than Chris in the exam.

A. Chris didn’t do as well as me in the exam.

B. I did farther than Chris in the exam.

C. Chris did worse than me in the exam.

D. I didn’t do worse than Chris had done.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

29. I judge by the car he drives. I’d say he’s got a pretty good job.

A. Because I judge by the car he drives, I’d say he’s got a pretty good job.

B. When I judge by the car he drives, I’d say he’s got a pretty good job.

C. Unless I judge by the car he drives, I’d say he’s got a pretty good job.

D. Judging by the car he drives, I’d say he’s got a pretty good job.

30. Matthew ran away from home. Matthew thought no one loved him.

A. Matthew ran away from home as when Matthew thought no one loved him.

B. Matthew ran away from home because Matthew thought no one loved him.

C. Thought that no one loved him, Matthew ran away from home.

D. Matthew thought no one loved him and so that Matthew ran away from home.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

If women choose to pursue a career once they have children, they often miss out on a close (30)_____ with their children. Helen Jamieson is a mother of three who has given (31)_____ work to look after her children full-time. She strongly believes that women are pressurized to do too much, driving themselves to the absolute limit. In her own case, after six years of paid employment, Helen finally decided to call it a day. She says she initially found it hard being at home, though she never misses the job itself. She admits that if she had had a brilliant career to begin (33)_____, she might feel differently now. Financially, she is no worse off (34)______ before, as the cost of childcare and commuting exceeded her actual income. (35)______ the government starts to give other tax incentives to working parents, she says she will not return to the workplace until her children are grown up.

31.

A. friendship

B. relationship

C. scholarship

D. membership

32.

A. out

B. in

C. to

D. up

33.

A. up

B. with

C. to

D. at

34.

A. as

B. so

C. than

D. then

35.

A. Unless

B. If

C. Provided

D. Even if

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 40

In the exploration of the linguistic life cycle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to learn a second language in adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never completely master a foreign language, especially in phonology – hence the ubiquitous foreign accent. Their development often “fossilizes” into permanent error patterns that no teaching or correction can undo. Of course, there are great individual differences, which depend on effort, attitudes, amount of exposure, quality of teaching, and plain talent, but there seems to be a cap for the best adults in the best circumstances.

Many explanations have been advanced for children’s superiority: they exploit Motherese (the simplified, repetitive conversation between parents and children), make errors unselfconsciously, are more motivated to communicate, like to conform, are not set in their ways, and have no first language to interfere. But some of these accounts are unlikely, based on what is known about how language acquisition works. Recent evidence is calling these social and motivation explanations into doubt. Holding every other factor constant, a key factor stands out: sheer age.

Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her colleagues. They tested Korean and Chinese-born students at the University of Illinois who had spent at least ten years in the United States. The immigrants were given a list of 276 simple English sentences, half of them containing some grammatical errors. The immigrants who came to the United States between the ages of 3 and 7 performed identically to American-born students. Those who arrived between the ages of 8 and 15 did worse the later they arrived, and those who arrived between 17 and 39 did the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated to the age of arrival.

36. The passage mainly discusses _______.

A. adults differences in learning a foreign language

B. children’s ability to learn a language

C. the age factor in learning language fast

D. research into language acquisition

37. From the passage, it can be inferred that “phonology” is the study of _______.

A. the grammar of a language

B. the rules of a language

C. the vocabulary of a language

D. the sound system of a language

38. The word “cap” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.

A. prize

B. limit

C. covering

D. level

39. According to the passage, young children learn language quickly for all of the following reasons EXCEPT _______.

A. they make many mistakes

B. they want to talk

C. their approach is flexible

D. they frequently repeat words

40. In the experiment in the passage, the psychologists discovered that _______.

A. most students had lived in the U.S for more than 10 years

B. older students were unable to learn English

C. young students learned English best

D. students who arrived late were worst of all

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tieegs anh 12 - Đề số 7

1A	11C	21B	31B
2D	12C	22A	32D
3A	13B	23D	33B
4B	14B	24B	34C
5C	15A	25C	35A
6B	16B	26B	36C
7D	17A	27C	37D
8D	18D	28A	38D
9D	19A	29D	39A
10B	20C	30B	40C

----------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 8)

LISTENING: Listen and choose the best option A, B, C, or D

1. What time does the film begin?

A. at quarter past one

B. at half past one

C. at quarter to two

D. at quarter to one

2. How will the man travel to London?

A. by coach

B. by car

C. by train

D. by bike

3. Where’s the sport centre?

A. It’s the second on the left.

B. It’s opposite the bank.

C. It’s the first on the right.

D. It’s near the bank.

4. What is Sarah’s mother doing?

A. going out

B. cooking

C. washing-up

D. cleaning the house

5. What luggage is the man taking on holiday?

A. two suitcases and a bag

B. two bags and a suitcase

C. two suitcases

D. one suitcase and a bag

6. Which photograph does the man like?

A. the photo of him standing on the clifftop

B. the photo of them seating on the beach

C. the photo of them standing on the clifftop

D. the photo of him walking on the beach

7. When and where are they meeting?

A. 07:30 - inside the restaurant

B. 07:00 - outside the restaurant

C. 07:00 - inside the restaurant

D. 07:30 - outside the restaurant

8. What can Chris get for his birthday?

A. some CDs

B. a book

C. some music tapes

D. clothes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 9:

A. visits

B. allows

C. interferes

D. plays

Question 10:

A. deal

B. spread

C. instead

D. head

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 11:

A. reserve

B. schedule

C. wildlife

D. beauty

Question 12:

A. epidemic

B. dedicate

C.advocate

D. currency

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions.

Question 13: The raw sewage needs to be ________ treated.

A. chemically

B. chemical

C. chemist

C. chemistry

Question 14: I’ll lend you the money and you ________ pay me back till next month.

A. needn’t

B. mustn’t

C. need

D. must

Question 15: I don’t think he will ever get ______ the shock of his father’s death.

A. over

B. through

C. off

D. by

Question 16: Never I experienced such a storm since I was a child.

A. had

B. have

C. did

D. was

Question 17. According to FAO, Vietnam is ________ second largest coffee producer in the world after Brazil.

A. the

B. a

C. an

D. Ø

Question 18. Their plans were cancelled _______ of a bad storm.

A. because

B. in spite

C. instead

D. in place

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 19: Hellen: “ Do you enjoy reading novels or comics?”

Jane: “_______________________."

A. What a pity

B. I enjoy comics a lot more

C. Yes, I do.

D. No, I don’t have any

Question 20: Tom: "What a lovely house that you have!" -

Marry : “ ”

A. I have no idea.

B. Thanks. It is a nice compliment.

C. Nothing special.

D. Yes, of course

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 21: Today the number (A)of people whom (B)enjoy winter sports is (C)almost double that (D) of twenty years ago.

Question 22: My brother usually ask (A) me for help when (B) he has(C) difficulty with his homework (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 23: My mom is always bad-tempered when I leave my room untidy.

A. feeling embarrassed

B. talking too much

C. very happy and satisfied

D. easily annoyed or irritated

Question 24: If you want an apartment in the centre of the city, you have to pay through the nose for it.

A. pay a vey high price

B. pay a reasonable price

C. pay a low price

D. pay a fair price

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 25: I'm glad that they see eye to eye on the matter of the conference location.

A. disagree

B. agree

C. regret

D. deny

Question 26: Language changes from decade to decade. Many expressions that were fashionable in the 1950s were out of style in the 1960s.

A. out of date

B. trendy

C. changeable

D. up to date

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 27: She heard the news of the death of her mother. She fainted.

A. On hearing the news of her dead mother, she fainted.

B. On hearing the news of her mother’s death, she fainted.

C. She fainted so she heard the news of the death of her mother.

D. She fainted and then she heard the news of the death of her mother.

Question 28: Rather than disturbing the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.

A. I would rather disturb the meeting than leave without saying goodbye.

B. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.

C. I disturb the meeting because I said goodbye.

D. The meeting was disturbed as I left saying goodbye.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 29: “I’m awfully sorry, Carol, but I’ve broken your watch”, said Jim.

A. Jim apologized to Carol to breaking her watch.

B. Jim apologized to Carol to break her watch.

C. Jim apologized to Carol for breaking her watch.

D. Jim apologized for Carol to break her watch.

Question 30: I haven’t met old English teacher since I left school.

A. I didn’t have a chance to meet my old English teacher because I left school.

B. this is the last time I met my old English teacher at shool.

C. I last met my old English teacher when I left school.

D. My old English teacher hasn’t met me since I have left school.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 35.

Anthropologists have pieced together the little they know about the history of left - handedness and right - handedness from indirect evidence. Though early men and women did not leave written records, they did leave tools, bones, and pictures. Stone Age hand axes and hatchets were made from stones that were carefully chipped away to form sharp cutting edges. In some, the pattern of chipping shows that these tools and weapons were made by right handed people, designed to fit comfortably into a right hand. Other Stone Age implements were made by or for left-handers Prehistoric pictures, painted on the walls of caves, provide further clues to the handedness of ancient people. A right - hander finds it easier to draw faces of people and animals facing toward the left, whereas a left - hander finds it easier to draw faces facing toward the right. Both kinds of faces have been found in ancient painting. On the whole, the evidence seems to indicate that prehistoric people were either ambidextrous or about equally likely to be left or right-handed.

But, in the Bronze Age, the picture changed. The tools and weapons found from that period are mostly made for right - handed use. The predominance of right - handedness among humans today had apparently already been established.

Question 31: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The purpose of ancient implements

B. The significance of prehistoric cave paintings

C. The development of right - handedness and left - handedness

D. The similarities between the Stone Age and Bronze Age

Question 32: Which of the following helped lead to conclusions about whether Stone Age people preferred one hand to the other?

A. Petrified forms of vegetation

B. Patterns of stone chipping

C. Fossilized waste material

D. Fossilized footprints

Question 33: In line 6, the word "further" is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. advanced

B. additional

C. artistic

D. factual

Question 34: According to the passage, a person who is right-handed is more likely to draw people and animals that are facing

A. upward

B. downward

C. toward the right

D. toward the left

Question 35: In line 11, the words "the picture" refer to which of the following?

A. Faces of animals and people

B. People's view from inside a cave

C. People's tendency to work with either hand

D. The kinds of paint used on cave walls

WHY DO ANIMALS GO EXTINCT?

Different kinds of animals have appeared and disappeared throughout Earth’s history. Some animals go extinct because the climate (36)_______ they live changes. The climate may become wetter or drier. It may become warmer or cooler. If the animals cannot change, or adapt, to the new climate, they die.Some animals go extinct because thay cannot (37) _______ with other animals for food. Some animals go extinct because they are killed by enemies. New kinds of animals are always evolving. Evolving means that the animals are changing (38) _______ from generation to generation. Small differences between parents, children, and grandchildren slowly add up over many, many generations. Eventually, a different kind of animal evolves.Sometimes many of the animals on Earth go extinct at the (39) _______ time. Scientists call this a mass extinction. Scientists think there (40) _______ at least five mass extinctions in Earth’s history. The last mass extinction happened about 65 million years ago. This mass extinction killed off the dinosaurs.

Question 36.

A. where

B. which

C. when

D. what

Question 37.

A. complete

B. find

C. compete

D. exist

Question 38.

A. accidentally

B. suddenly

C. quickly

D. slowly

Question 39.

A. same

B. similar

C. different

D. various

Question 40.

A. has been

B. have been

C. will be

D. are

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tieegs anh 12 - Đề số 8

1C	11A	21B	31C
2A	12A	22A	32B
3A	13A	23D	33B
4C	14A	24A	34D
5A	15A	25A	35C
6C	16B	26A	36A
7D	17A	27B	37C
8B	18A	28B	38D
9A	19B	29C	39A
10A	20B	30C	40B

----------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 9)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. attacks

B. repeats

C. roofs

D. trays

Question 2:

A. stomach

B. watch

C. change

D. church

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. appear

B. destroy

C. visit

D. attempt

Question 4:

A. tomorrow

B. construction

C. relation

D. pessimist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: The mother aksed her little(A) daughter studying(B) harder(C) for the final(D) exam

Question 6: Alice in Wonderland, first published(A) in 1865, has(B) being(C) translated into thirty
languages(D).

Question 7: Are(A) you sure Tereshkova was(B) the first woman traveling(C) in space(D) ?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: You have to study hard to__________your classmates.

A. keep pace with

B. get in touch with

C. catch sight of

D. look out for

Question 9: There are many people__________lives have been spoilt by that factory.

A. whom

B. who

C. whose

D. when

Question 10: He __________for that company since he arrived here.

A. has been worked

B. has worked

C. had been working

D. was working

Question 11: Nobody seemed to be interested in the news. It was greeted with a lack of_________.

A. enthusiastic

B. enthusiasm

C. enthusiastically

D. enthusiast

Question 12: Many plants and endangered species are now endangering of __________.

A. expression

B. expulsion

C. extinction

D. extension

Question 13: The article analyzes the impact of the tax based_________real estate prices and sales.

A. in

B. on

C. at

D. with

Question 14: “I think Jane is at home”_ “No, she _______ be at home, for she phoned me from the airport just ten minutes ago.”

A. mustn’t

B. needn’t

C. can’t

D. won’t

Question 15: She is wearing a ________ dress. She is said to be the most beautiful girl in the party.

A. short pink wedding

B. pink wedding short

C. wedding pink short

D. pink short wedding

Question 16: Mary will have finished all her work __________.

A. as soon as her boss returned

B. until her boss will return

C. by the time her boss returns

D. when her boss will return

Question 17: Most ________ people in __________Vietnam are preparing for the Lunar New Year.

A. the / Ø

B. Ø / the

C. Ø / Ø

D. the / an

Question 18: The more you talk about the matter, __________.

A. the situation seems the worse

B. the situation seems worse

C. the worse seems the situation

D. the worse the situation seems

Question 19: Mary enjoys __________ to music when she has her free time.

A. to listen

B. listening

C. listen

D. being listened

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - Lucy: What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!

- Sue:_______

A. Thank you very much. I am afraid

B. You are telling a lie

C. Thank you for your compliment

D. I don't like your sayings

Question 21: Mike and Lane are neighbors. They are talking about Lane’s party.

Mike: “Thank you for a lovely evening”

Lane: “__________”

A. It depends on you

B. Thank you very much indeed.

C. Yeah. I’m really looking forward to it

D. You are welcome

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), was established in 1946

A. set up

B. found out

C. run through

D. put away

Question 23: Many species have become extinct each year before biologists can identify them.

A. destroy

B. discover

C. endanger

D. drain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 24: "Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight."

A. turn down

B. slow down

C. hurry up

D. put forward

Question 25: We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.

A. uninterested

B. unsure

C. open

D. slow

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: I haven’t met old English teacher since I left school.

A. I didn’t have a chance to meet my old English teacher because I left school.

B. This is the last time I met my old English teacher at shool.

C. I last met my old English teacher when I left school.

D. My old English teacher hasn’t met me since I have left school.

Question 27: They think that the owner of the house has gone abroad.

A. The owner of the house is thought to go abroad.

B. The owner of the house is thought to have been going abroad.

C. The owner of the house is thought to have been gone abroad.

D. The owner of the house is thought to have gone abroad.

Question 28: Without this treatment, the patient would have died.

A. If it hadn’t been for this treatment, the patient would have died.

B. Unless the patient hadn’t had this treatment, he would have died.

C. Had not the patient had this treatment, he would have died.

D. But for the patient had had this treatment, he would have died.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: If you need my advice, I'm against your buying that car.

A. If it were me, I'll buy that car.

B. If I were you, I wouldn't buy that car.

C. If it were me, I hadn't bought that car.

D. If I were you, I would buy that car.

Question 30: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.

A. Because she didn‘t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.

B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‘t pass it.

C. Although she did her best, she could hardly pass the driving test.

D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

English is the __(31)__important language in the world today. A very large number of people understand and use English in all parts of the world. Indeed, English is very useful language. If we know English, we can go to any place or country we like. We shall not find it hard to __(32)__people understand what we wish to say.

English also helps us to learn all kinds of subjects. Hundreds of books are written in English everyday in all__(33)__ to teach people many useful things. The English language has therefore helped to spread ideas and knowledge to all the corners of the world. There is no subject that cannot be learned in the English language.

As English is used so much everywhere in the world, it has helped to make the countries of the world become more__(34)__ with one another. The leaders of the world use English to understand one another. The English language has therefore also helped to spread better understanding and friendship among countries of the world. Lastly, a person __(35)__ knows English is respected by people. It is for all these reasons that I want to learn English.

Question 31:

A. most

B. mostly

C. chiefly

D. best

Question 32:

A. get

B. let

C. persuade

D. make

Question 33:

A. places

B. sites

C. countries

D. scenes

Question 34:

A. friend

B. friendly

C. friendship

D. friendliness

Question 35:

A. what

B. whom

C. who

D. whose

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 40.

If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to children.

However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of their child. Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling. Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.

Question 36: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to _____.

A. push their child into trying too much

B. help their child to become a genius

C. make their child become a musician

D. neglect their child’s education

Question 37: Michael Collins is fortunate in that ______.

A. his father is a musician

B. his parents are quite rich

C. his mother knows little about music

D. his parents help him in a sensible way.

Question 38: The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means ______.

A. "surprised at"

B. "extremely interested in"

C. "completely unaware of"

D. "confused about"

Question 39: The word “They” in the second paragraph refers to ______.

A. competitions

B. concerts

C. Michael’s parents

D. Michael’s lessons

Question 40: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that _______.

A. successful parents always have intelligent children

B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children

C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants

D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 9

1D	11B	21D	31A
2A	12C	22A	32D
3C	13B	23B	33C
4D	14C	24B	34B
5B	15A	25B	35C
6C	16C	26C	36A
7C	17C	27D	37D
8A	18D	28A	38B
9C	19B	29B	39C
10B	20C	30C	40C

----------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 10)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 1:

A. cooks

B. loves

C. joins

D. spends

Câu 2.

A.confided

B. rejected

C. preceded

D. touched

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Câu 3:

A. promote

B. agree

C. option

D. prepare

Câu 4:

A. certificate

B. occupation

C. miraculous

D. diversity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the each of following questions.

Câu 5: Her passion for helping people have motivated her to found her own charity organization.

A. for

B. own charity

C. have

D. found

Câu 6: Benjamin Franklin was the editor of the largest newspaper in the colonies, a diplomatic representative to France, and he invented many useful devices.

A. he invented

B. was

C. the largest

D. useful

Câu 7: Food prices have risen so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to alter her eating habits.

A. rapidly

B. that

C. have risen

D. her eating habits

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Câu 8: The organization was ___________ in 1950 in the USA.

A. come around

B. set up

C. made out

D. put on

Câu 9: ______ the problem of water pollution gets more serious, the government is searching for a way to deal with it.

A. Providing

B. Although

C. However

D. Because

Câu 10: He will never forget the day ________ he met his wife.

A. where

B. that

C. when

D. which

Câu 11: Your __________must be typed into 3 copies to hand in for our company.

A. applying

B. application

C. applicants

D. applicating

Câu 12: She looks delighted. She __________ some good news.

A. would receive

B. must receive

C. must have received

D. can't have received

Câu 13: John lost the _________bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him because of his carelessness.

A. Japanese beautiful new blue

B. beautiful Japanese blue new

C. new beautiful blue Japanese

D. beautiful new blue Japanese

Câu 14: Governments have ________ laws to protect wildlife from over-hunting.

A.enforced

B. enacted

C. observed

D. required

Câu 15: Donald Trump has suggested he could grant legal status to millions of undocumented immigrants who have not ______ serious crimes in what would be a major policy shift.

A. committed

B. took

C. served

D. done

Câu 16: ._________ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would willingly have helped with the project.

A. If it were

B. Hadn’t it been

C. were it to be

D. If it hadn’t been

Câu 17: Nowadays it is not easy to find a _______ job.

A. good-pay

B. well-paid

C. good-paid

D. well-pay

Câu 18: John is _______ only child in his family so his parents love him a lot.

A. the

B. an

C. Ø

D. a

Câu 19: By the end of next year, George _______ English for two years.

A. will have learned

B. will learn

C. would learn

D. has learned

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Câu 20: - Peter: “ How lovely your cats are!”

- Linda: “ ____________”

A. Really? They are

B. Can you say it again

C. I love them, too

D. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so

Câu 21: “Is it all right if I use your bike?”-“______________”

A. I don’t want to use your bike

B. Please accept it with my best wishes

C. Sure, go ahead

D. Sorry, no, I won’t do it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 22: Many plant and animal species will be in danger if we don't take any actions to protect them.

A. at stake

B. in advance

C. on purpose

D. at ease

Câu 23: The one thing you mustn't do is be late because the boss is very hot on punctuality.

A. worried about

B. good about

C. funny about

D. strict about

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 24: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islander even exported the surplus.

A. excess

B. small quantity

C. sufficiency

D. large quantity

Câu 25: Many people oppose corporal punishment when educating young children though several of them are naughty.

A. disagree with

B. object to

C. disapprove of

D. advocate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Importance of Punctuality in school life

Being punctual will really help you to succeed in your studies. First and foremost, punctuality(26)_____ ________ that you will arrive on time to classes and so will not (27)_____ _____any part of the lesson.Punctuality during school life will also help to prepare you for your working life. If you get into good habits of punctuality during your school years, you will find it easier to always turn (28)_____ ____to your work on time and thus to get ahead in your career as well.(29)__________, punctuality is, quite simply, a polite skill to cultivate. Your teachers will have put a lot of effort into preparing their classes and so it is important that you turn up on time so that you do not mess up their plans.What about if you have an(30)______________ emergency, or an appointment that cannot be moved, that means that you will need to miss a portion of the school day? In these cases, it is crucial to tell your teachers well in advance.

Câu 26:

A. insures

B. assures

C. ensures

D. reassures

Câu 27:

A. lost

B. miss

C. lack

D. need

Câu 28:

A. out

B. on

C. up

D. in

Câu 29:

A. Moreover

B. Finally

C. However

D. Therefore

Câu 30:

A. avoiding

B. unavoidable

C. avoided

D. avoidable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

THE SUCCESS OF J. K. ROWLING

There are few modern-day writers as renowned as Joanne Kathleen Rowling, the creator of Harry Potter. With over 30 awards under her belt, she is one of the most successful authors of all time. In addition, her novels have famously been adapted into a series of box-office hits. These earn her so much income that the 47-year-old could comfortably retire, and live off Harry Potter royalties for the rest of her life! However, this lucrative success story started at the most humble of beginnings, with a talented but insecure writer too afraid to pursue her dreams.

Joanne grew up in a house full of books that fuelled her creativity. She was so enchanted by fairy tales that she began to dream up her own, and by the time she was six years old she had written her first story about a rabbit and a giant bee. “Ever since Rabbit and Miss Bee, I have wanted to be a writer, though I rarely told anyone so,” recalls Joanne, “I was afraid they'd tell me I didn’t have a hope."

Throughout her life, Joanne continued to write, filling entire boxes with stories and unfinished novels. But due to her lack of confidence, she never approached a publisher with any of her work. It wasn’t until later life, when Joanne lost her job and was living in poverty, that she finally devoted her time to writing. Then with nothing to lose, she contacted an agency with her first completed manuscript: Harry Potter and the Philosopher’s Stone.

Joanne’s first novel was rejected by twelve different publishers and eventually found itself in the hands of Nigel Newton, the founder of Bloomsbury Press. He did not read the book himself, but gave it to his eight-year-old daughter. The girl loved the novel so much that Nigel agreed to take it on; but not without apprehensions. “You’ll never make any money out of children’s books,” he warned Joanne.

Well, she certainly proved him wrong! To date, she has sold 500 million copies of her novels globally, and the Harry Potter franchise has reaped profits of £15 billion! Now, as the richest author in the world, no publisher in their right mind would dream of turning down one of her books! And as for Joanne’s confidence; well, let’s just say It’s been given quite a boost.

Câu 31: What is the purpose of this article?

A. to compare the publishing and film industries

B. to raise publicity about a children's book

C. to show how profitable the publishing industry can be

D. to describe the career of a famous author

Câu 32: In the fourth sentence of the first paragraph, what does these refer to?

A. awards

B. films

C. royalties

D. books

Câu 33: The word “fuelled” is closest in meaning to.......

A. gave impetus to

B. brought in money

C.hinted

D. raised

Câu 34: According to the text, what initially stopped Joanne from contacting a publisher?

A. her financial situation

B. her lack of time

C. her inability to complete a novel

D. her self-doubt

Câu 35: W hat drove Nigel Newton to publish Joanne's first novel?

A. His daughter's reaction to the book.

B. He took pity on Joanne.

C. The fact that children's books sold well.

D. He was captivated upon reading it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Câu 36: My sister is often sick because she doesn’t do physical exercise.

A. If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick.

B. If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick.

C. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick.

D. If my sister wasn’t physical exercise, she would do sick.

Câu 37: They think that the prisoner escaped by climbing over the wall.

A. The prisoner is thought escaped by climbing over the wall.

B. The prisoner is thought to escape by climbing over the wall.

C. The prisoner is thought having escaped by climbing over the wall.

D. The prisoner is thought to have escaped by climbing over the wall.

Câu 38: The last time I talked to Rose was two years ago.

A.I haven’t talked to Rose for two years.

B. I haven’t talked to Rose since two years.

C. I hadn’t talked to Rose for two years.

D. I haven’t talked to Rose two years ago.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Câu 39: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.

A. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.

B. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.

C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.

D.Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.

Câu 40: I didn’t pay attention to the teacher. I failed to understand the lesson.

A. I would have understood the lesson if I had paid attention to the teacher.

B. Although I paid attention to the teacher, I failed to understand the lesson.

C. I would have understood the lesson if I had failed to pay attention to the teacher.

D.Unless I failed to understand the lesson, I would pay attention to the teacher.

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 10

1A	11B	21C	31D
2D	12C	22A	32B
3C	13D	23D	33A
4B	14B	24B	34D
5C	15A	25B	35A
6A	16D	26C	36C
7D	17B	27B	37D
8B	18A	28C	38A
9D	19A	29A	39A
10C	20D	30B	40A

----------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 11)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. choice

B. champagne

C. change

D. channel

Question 2:

A. envelops

B. days

C. cities

D. areas

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 3: The way the care-taker treated those little children was deplorable. She must be punished for what she did.

A. respectable

B. unacceptable

C. mischievous

D. satisfactory

Question 4: My parents’ warnings didn’t deter me from choosing the job of my dreams.

A. influence

B. inspire

C. discourage

D. reassure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: Two students Peter and Anny are talking about women’s role.

~ Peter: " In my opinion, women would not go to work." ~ Anny: "............."

A. What nonsense!

B. Yes, I don’t agree

C. Yes, I do

D. Yes, it was ever

Question 6: ~ Cindy: "Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!" ~ Mary: ".............."

A. Thanks, but I’m afraid

B. Yes, all right.

C. Never mention it

D. Thanks, Cindy. I had it done yesterday.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from.

Question 7:

A. emotion

B. modernize

C. impressive

D. identity

Question 8:

A. industrial

B. ornamental

C. courageous

D. computer

Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9: What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen and policemen who had been laid off from their jobs.

A. were

B. What happened

C. their

D. including

Question 10: When precipitation occurs, some of it evaporates, some runs off the surface it strikes, and some sinking into the ground.

A. some

B. the

C. sinking

D. When

Question 11: Opened the letter from her boyfriend, she felt extremely excited.

A. excited.

B. felt

C. Opened

D. from

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions from.

Question 12: Jack was overconfident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.

A. That was Jack’s overconfidence ruined our plan completely.

B. It was Jack’s overconfidence ruined our plan completely.

C. It was because Jack’s overconfidence that ruined our plan completely.

D. Jack was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely.

Question 13: Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well.

A. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.

B. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.

C. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.

D. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from.

Duncan Phyfe made some of the most beautiful furniture found in America. His family name was originally Fife, and he was born in Scotland in 1768. In 1784, the Fife family immigrated to Albany, New York where Duncan’s father opened a cabinetmaking shop. Duncan followed his father’s footsteps and was apprenticed to a cabinetmaker. After completing his training, Duncan moved to New York City.Duncan Fife was first mentioned in the 1792 NYC Directory as a furniture "joiner" in business at 2 Broad Street. Two years later, he moved, expanded his business, and changed his name to Phyfe. He was aquiet-living, God-fearing young man who felt his new name would probably appeal to potential customers who were definitely anti-British in this post-Revolutionary War period. Duncan Phyfe’s name distinguished him from his contemporaries. Although the new spelling helped him better compete with French emigrant craftsmen, his new name had more to do with hanging it on a sign over his door stoop.The artisans and merchants who came to America discovered a unique kind of freedom. They were no longer restricted by class and guild traditions of Europe. For the first time in history, a man learned that by working hard, he could build his business based on his own name and reputation and quality of work.Phyfe’s workshop apparently took off immediately. At the peak of his success, Phyfe employed 100 craftsmen. Some economic historians point to Phyfe as having employed division of labour and an assembly line. What his workshop produced shows Phyfe’s absolute dedication to quality in workmanship. Each piece of furniture was made of the best available materials. He was reported to have paid $1,000 for a single Santo Domingo mahogany log.Phyfe did not create new designs. Rather, he borrowed from a broad range of the period’s classical styles, Empire, Sheraton, Regency, and French Classical among them. Nevertheless, Phyfe’s high quality craftsmanship established him as America’s patriotic interpreter of European design in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries.Although the number of pieces produced by Duncan Phyfe’s workshop is enormous, comparatively few marked or labeled pieces have been found extant. In antiques shops and auctions, collectors have paid $11, 000 f o r a c a r d t a b l e,$ 24,200 for a tea table, and $93,500 for a sewing table.

Question 14: Which choice is closest in meaning to the word "guild" in paragraph 4?

A. Political party of emigrants

B. Organization of craftsmen

C. Verdict of a jury

D. Immigrants’ club

Question 15: The author implies that.......

A. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop costs a lot of money today.

B. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was ignored by New Yorkers.

C. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop no longer exists.

D. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was made by his father.

Question 16: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Duncan Phyfe’s cabinetmaking designs.

B. Duncan Phyfe’s life and career.

C. The business of cabinetmaking.

D. The significance of Duncan Phyfe’s name.

Question 17: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe’s death?

A. He died in Albany.

B. He died in Scotland.

C. He died in the eighteenth century.

D. He died in the nineteenth century.

Question 18: According to the passage, which of the following does the author imply?

A. Duncan Fife and his father had the same first name.

B. Duncan Phyfe made over 100 different kinds of tables.

C. Duncan Fife and his father were in the same business.

D. Duncan Fife worked for his father in Scotland.

Question 19: Which choice does the word "it" in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. His spelling

B. His French

C. His chair

D. His name

Question 20: In his business, Duncan Phyfe used all of the following EXCEPT.......

A. the least expensive materials

B. an assembly line

C. continental designs

D. division of labour

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning

to each of the following questions.

Question 21: When I picked up my book I found that the cover had been torn.

A. Picking up my book, the cover had been torn.

B. Picked up, I saw that the cover of the book was torn.

C. On picking up the book, I saw that the cover had been torn.

D. The cover had been torn when my book picked up.

Question 22: "I’ll speak calmly. I really will!" he said.

A. He reminded me to speak calmly.

B. He offered to speak calmly.

C. He refused to speak calmly.

D. He promised to speak calmly.

Question 23: We had no sooner got to know our neighbours than they moved away.

A. If our new neighbours had stayed longer, we would have got to know them better.

B. Soon after we got to know our new neighbours, we stopped having contact with them.

C. Hardly had we become acquainted with our new neighbours when they went somewhere else to live.

D. Once we had got used to our new neighbours, they moved somewhere else.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.

A. calm

B. miserable

C. responsive

D. uncomfortable

Question 25: For most male spiders courtship is a perilous procedure, for they may be eaten by females.

A. safe

B. complicated

C. peculiar

D. dangerous

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

The work of women has been economically vital since prehistory, although their contributions have varied according to the structure, needs, customs, and attitudes of society.In prehistoric times, women and men participated almost equally in hunting and gathering activities to obtain food. With the development of agricultural communities, women’s work revolved more around the home. As urban centres developed, women sold or traded goods in the marketplace.From ancient to modern times, four generalizations can be made about women's paid work. Women have worked because of economic necessity; poor women in particular worked outside the home whether they were unmarried or married, and especially if their husbands were unable to sustain the family solely through their own work. Women’s indentured work has often been similar to their work at home. Women have maintained the primary responsibility for raising children, regardless of their paid work. Women have historically been paid less than men and have been allocated lower-status workSome major changes are now occurring in industrial nations, including the steadily increasing proportion of women in the labor force; decreasing family responsibilities (due to both smaller family size and technological innovation in the home); higher levels of education for women; and more middle and upper-income women working for pay or for job satisfaction. Statistically, they have not yet achieved parity of pay or senior appointments in the workplace in any nation.Artisans working in their own homes not infrequently used the labor of their families. This custom was so prevalent during the Middle Ages, craft guilds of the period, including some that otherwise excluded women, often admitted to membership the widows of guild members, providing they met professional requirements. Dressmaking and lacemaking guilds were composed exclusively of women.Gradually, the guilds were replaced by the putting-out system, whereby tools and materials were distributed to workers by merchants; the workers then produced articles on a piecework basis in their homes. During the 18th and early 19th centuries, as the Industrial Revolution developed, the putting-out system slowly declined. Goods that had been produced by hand in the home were manufactured by machine under the factory system. Women competed more with men for some jobs, but were concentrated primarily in textile mills and clothing factories. Manufacturers often favored women employees because of relevant skills and lower wages, and also because early trade union organization tended to occur first among men.Employees in sweatshops were also preponderantly women. The result was to institutionalize systems of low pay, poor working conditions, long hours, and other abuses, which along with child labor presented some of the worst examples of worker exploitation in early industrial capitalism. Minimum wage legislation and other protective laws, when introduced, concentrated particularly on the alleviation of these abuses of working women.Women workers in business and the professions, the so-called white-collar occupations, suffered less from poor conditions of work and exploitative labor, but were denied equality of pay and opportunity. The growing use of the typewriter and the telephone after the 1870s created two new employment niches for women, as typists and telephonists, but in both fields the result was again to institutionalize a permanent category of low-paid, low-status women’s work.

Question 26: When the farming communities developed, women worked......

A. less at home

B. more at home

C. in groups

D. more outside

Question 27: The word "sweatshops" suggests.......

A. hard work

B. harmful work

C. factory work

D. workshop

Question 28: With better education and less family burden, women........

A. have become more influential in their companies

B. have not yet achieved high status in the workplace

C. have enjoyed equal status in the workplace

D. have been respected at home and in the workplace

Question 29: The word "indentured" in this context may mostly means.......

A. in the kitchen

B. inside the home

C. outside the kitchen

D. outside the home

Question 30: Under the "putting-out system", the workers........

A. provide their factories with raw materials

B. bought materials to manufacture goods

C. turn their homes into factories

D. are provided with tools to produce goods at home

Question 31: Manufacturers tended to employ women because........

A. they did not have to pay for high insurance

B. they could cheat them more easily

C. they did not have to pay high wages

D. women demanded less than men

Question 32: Although women cannot avoid the task of bringing up children, .......

A. they can be breadwinners as men

B. they have to work to feed their men

C. are the mainstay of their families

D. they have to amuse their men

Question 33: What women have done for the economic development have changed over time due to........

A. their role in the home

B. the different factors of the society

C. the Industrial Revolution

D. their marital status and their husbands

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the numbered blanks.

My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store. I wanted to work part-time, because I was still studying at university and I was only able to work a few nights a week. I came across the advertisement in the local newspaper. I remember the interview as though it were yesterday. The ...(34)... manager sat behind a large desk. He asked me various questions which surprised me because all I wanted was to work in sales. An hours later, I was told that I had got the job and was given a contract to go over. I was to be trained for ten days before I took my post. Also, as a member of staff, I was ...(35)... to some benefits, including discounts.When I eventually started, I was responsible ...(36)... the toy section. I really enjoyed it there and I loved demonstrating the different toys. I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too. They made working there fun even when we had to deal with customers ...(37)... got on our nerves. ...(38)..., working there was a great experience which I will never forget.

Question 34:

A. personnel

B. personal

C. personage

D. personable

Question 35:

A. given

B. supplied

C. catered

D. entitled

Question 36:

A. in

B. with

C. for

D. to

Question 37:

A. when

B. why

C. which

D. who

Question 38:

A. Moreover

B. However

C. On the whole

D. In contrast

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from.

Question 39: When the Titanic started sinking, the passengers were.......

A. panic-stricken

B. apprehensive

C. weather-beaten

D. horrifying

Question 40: This class,.....is a prerequisite for microbiology, is so difficult that I would rather drop it.

A. when

B. where

C. which

D. that

Question 41: Jack has a collection of........

A. valuable Japanese old postage stamps

B. old valuable Japanese postage stamps

C. old Japanese valuable postage stamps

D. valuable old Japanese postage stamps

Question 42: Kate didn’t enjoy the roller coaster ride because it was......experience of her life.

A. a most terrified

B. the most terrified

C. far more terrifying

D. the most terrifying

Question 43: By appearing on the soap powder commercials, she became a.......name.

A. house

B. housekeeper

C. housewife

D. household

Question 44: .......his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very clearly.

A. Even though

B. Because

C. Because of

D. In spite of

Question 45: During the campaign when Lincoln was first a(n)......for the Presidency, the slaves on the far-off plantations, miles from any railroad or large city or daily newspaper, knew what the issues involved were.

A. contestant

B. candidate

C. applicant

D. competitor

Question 46: ~ Peter: "What........ your flight?" ~ Mary: "There was a big snowstorm in Birmingham that delayed a lot of flights."

A. hung up

B. delayed up

C. held up

D. postponed up

Question 47: I haven’t read any medical books or articles on the subject for a long time, so I’m.......with recent developments.

A. out of touch

B. out of the question

C. out of the condition

D. out of reach

Question 48: Everyone in both cars.......injured in the accident last night, ......?

A. were - were they

B. was - weren’t they

C. were - weren’t they

D. was - wasn’t he

Question 49: ~ Jenny: "Was Linda asleep when you came home?" ~ Jack: "No. She......TV."

A. was watching

B. has been watching

C. watched

D. had watched

Question 50: I assume that you are acquainted......this subject since you are responsible.......writing the accompanying materials.

A. to - to

B. with - for

C. to - for

D. with – with

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 11

1B	11C	21C	31C	41D
2A	12D	22D	32A	42D
3B	13B	23C	33B	43D
4C	14B	24D	34A	44D
5A	15A	25B	35A	45B
6D	16B	26B	36C	46C
7C	17D	27A	37D	47A
8D	18C	28B	38C	48B
9A	19D	29D	39A	49A
10C	20A	30D	40C	50B

----------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 12)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. educate

B. eliminate

C. certificate

D. dedicate

Question 2:

A. initiate

B. substantial

C. attention

D. particular

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. represented

B. biography

C. indirectly

D. entertainment

Question 4:

A. obligatory

B. geographical

C. international

D. undergraduate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to alter their eating habits.

A. have raised

B. rapidly

C. that

D. their eating habits

Question 6: Having finished his term paper before the deadline, it was delivered to the professor before the class.

A. Having finished

B. before the

C. it was delivered

D. professor before

Question 7: Since vitamins are contained in a wide variety of foods, people seldom lack of most of them.

A. are

B. in a

C. variety of

D. lack of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: We should participate in the movements ______ the natural environment.

A. organizing to conserve

B. organized to conserve

C. organized conserving

D. which organize to conserve

Question 9: ______ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know ______ exact number of them.

A. A/the

B. The/an

C. The/the

D. A/an

Question 10: John forgot ______ his ticket so he was not allowed ______ the club.

A. brought/enter

B. bring/entering

C. bringing/to enter

D. to bring/to enter

Question 11: Snow and rain ______ of nature.

A. are phenomena

B. is phenomena

C. is phenomenon

D. are phenomenon

Question 12: Her outgoing character contrasts ______ with that of her sister.

A. thoroughly

B. fully

C. sharply

D. coolly

Question 13: It turned out that we ______ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.

A. hadn’t

B. should have

C. mustn’t

D. needn’t have

Question 14: When I was a child, I loved to splash through the ______ after rain.

A. pools

B. puddles

C. ponds

D. rivers

Question 15: Learning Spanish isn’t so difficult once you ______.

A. get away with it

B. get off it

C. get down to it

D. get on it

Question 16: Staying in a hotel costs ______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.

A. twice as much as

B. as much as twice

C. twice more than

D. twice as

Question 17: Please don’t ______ a word of this to anyone else, it’s highly confidential.

A. speak

B. pass

C. mutter

D. breathe

Question 18: In spite of his abilities, Peter has been ______ overlooked for promotion.

A. repeat

B. repeatedly

C. repetitiveness

D. repetitive

Question 19: I wish you ______ me a new one instead of having it ______ as you did.

A. had given/repaired

B. gave/to repair

C. would give/to repair

D. had given/to be repaired

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Jim invited Helen to visit his gardens:

- Helen: "I love your gardens. The plants are well taken care of!"

- Jim : “Thanks. Yes, I suppose I've always ____.”

A. had green fingers

B. let nature take its course

C. made it down on my luck

D. drawn the short straw

Question 21: Mrs. Skate’s in a fashion store. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange:

- Mrs. Skate: “How can this dress can be so expensive?” - The shop assistant: “_____.”

A. Yes, it’s the most expensive

B. You’re paying for the brand

C. What an expensive dress

D. That’s a good idea

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Adding a garage will enhance the value of the house.

A. stabilize

B. alter

C. increase

D. diminish

Question 23: You never really know where you are with her as she just blows hot and cold.

A. keeps going

B. keeps taking things

C. keeps changing her mood

D. keeps testing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Are you looking for a temporary or a permanent job?

A. fierce

B. stable

C. fleeting

D. loose

Question 25: Constant correction of speaking ‘errors’ by a teacher is often counter-productive, as student may become afraid to speak at all.

A. desolate

B. fruitless

C. barren

D. effective

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Jack has won a jackpot prize. 10% of it was donated to flooded areas.

A. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% which half was donated to flooded areas.

B. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% of which was donated to flooded areas.

C. Jack has won a jackpot prize, 10% of that was donated to flooded areas.

D. Jack has won a jackpot prize, which was donated to flooded areas.

Question 27: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test.

A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test.

B. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.

C. Although she didn't read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.

D. Not having read the reference books, she couldn't finish the test.

Question 28: My advice is that you get straight to the point in the next report.

A. If I were you, I would go straight to the bush in the next report.

B. If I were you, I would have the next report got started.

C. If I were you, I would not beat around the bush in the next report.

D. If I were you, I would not point out the next report.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: I whispered as I didn't want anybody to hear our conversation.

A. Since nobody wanted to hear our conversation, I whispered.

B. So as not to hear our conversation, I whispered.

C. Because I whispered, anybody heard our conversation.

D. I lowered my voice in order that our conversation couldn't be heard.

Question 30: Tim graduated with a good degree. He joined the ranks of the unemployed.

A. Tim joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree.

B. If Tim graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed.

C. Though Tim graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

D. That Tim graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The Prime Minister's comments yesterday on education spending miss the point, as the secondary education system also needs a major overhaul. Firstly, the system only views the weakest learners as having special needs. The brightest and most conscientious students are not encouraged to develop to their full (31)_____. Secondly, there's too much testing and not enough learning. My fifteen-year-old daughter, for example, has just spent the last month or so (32)_____ for exams. These aren't even real, important exams, as her GCSEs will be next year. They're just mock exams. Is the work she's been doing really going to make her more knowledgeable about her subjects, or will she forget it all tomorrow? I suspect the (33)_____. Thirdly, the standard (34)_____ doesn't give students any tuition in developing practical work-related, living and social skills, or in skills necessary for higher education. How many students entering university have the first idea what the difference is between plagiarising someone else's work and (35)_____ good use of someone else's ideas? Shouldn't they have been taught this at school? How many of them are really able to go about self-study skill that's essential at university because there are no teachers to tell you what to do - in an efficient way? Indeed, hoe many students graduate from university totally unable to spell even simple English words correctly? The system is letting our children down.

Question 31:

A. plan

B. fame

C. potential

D. achievement

Question 32:

A. reading

B. lecturing

C. cheating

D. cramming

Question 33:

A. latter

B. frontier

C. later

D. latest

Question 34:

A. timetable

B. curriculum

C. lecture

D. seminar

Question 35:

A. having

B. taking

C. making

D. creating

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Lead poisoning in children is a major health concern. Both low and high doses of paint can have serious effects. Children exposed to high doses of lead often suffer permanent nerve damage, mental retardation, blindness, and even death. Low doses of lead can lead to mild mental retardation, short attention spans, distractibility, poor academic performance, and behavioral problems.

This is not a new concern. As early as 1904, lead poisoning in children was linked to lead-based paint. Microscopic lead particles from paint are absorbed into the bloodstream when children ingest flakes of chipped paint,plaster,or paint dust from sanding. Lead can also enter the body through household dust, nailbiting, thumb sucking, or chewing on toys and other objects painted with lead-based paint. Although American paint companies today must comply with strict regulations regarding the amount of lead used in their paint, this source of lead poisoning is still the most common and most dangerous. Children living in older, dilapidated houses are particularly at risk.

Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. problems with household paint

B. major health concern for children

C. lead poisoning in children

D. lead paint in order homes

Question 37: The phrase "exposed to" in line 2 could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. in contact with

B. familiar with

C. displaying

D. conducting

Question 38: Which of the following does the passage infer?

A. Paint companies can no longer use lead in their paint.

B. Paint companies must limit the amount of lead used in their paint.

C. Paint companies aren't required to limit the amount of lead used in their paint.

D. Paint companies have always followed restrictions regarding the amount of lead used in their paint.

Question 39: The word "ingest" could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. inhale

B. invest

C. inject

D. eat

Question 40: The word "dilapidated" is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. unpainted

B. decorated

C. broken down

D. poorly painted

Question 41: According to the passage, what is the most common source of lead poisoning in children?

A. household dust

B. lead-based paint

C. painted toys

D. dilapidated houses

Question 42: What does the author imply in the final sentence of the passage?

A. Old homes were painted with lead – based paint.

B. Lead-based paint chips off more easily than newer paints.

C. Poor people did not comply with the regulations

D. Old homes need to be rebuilt in order to be safe for children.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

1. In China the growing difference between the genders is giving signals of alarm to Government authorities. According to the latest census figures, 119 boys are born for every 100 girls. This striking difference is expected to shoot up by the year 2020 with almost 40 million unsettled bachelors. This distribution of the social ecology would create havoc in the future. The social leaders are trying to pressurize the masses into producing more females. The Government has embarked on policies extending innumerable incentives to the families bearing girls. Monetary support, free education, guaranteed employment is being gifted to parents who gift the country with a girl child. The Government is trying to persuade people to suppress their personal preferences and regulate their community behavior according to the new blueprint to stimulate the girl ratio. [A■] Sometimes the Government tries to woo them and sometimes it uses stem policies to force them into it

2. Consequent to the population explosion, the Government introduced, in the 80’s, one child policy in China. Any additional pregnancy had to be terminated. This was aimed to put a check on the teeming millions. The policy had no relation to extermination of girl child in the womb. But the policymakers had no idea about its long term impact. People, with a patriarchic mindset, came up with their preference for a single male child. The idea of a happy family became ‘parents with a single male child’.

3. The Chinese culture has always promoted sons over daughters because the society has been dominated by males. In villages, where hard work is needed to sustain the agriculture, a boy is always preferable due to his superior physical strength compared to that of a girl. [B■] In such circumstances, looking forward to a male baby seems justified. If people have to limit their families, it is obvious they would prefer a boy over a girl child. This problem has been accentuated by the use of ultrasound scanning which helps determine the sex of the fetus. This technology has played a crucial role in creating gender imbalance.

4. Sociologists consider this imbalance as the aftermath of Government’s poorly thought and short-sighted policy. The Government's intentions notwithstanding, China came to develop a markedly lopsided sex ratio. Nobel Laureate Hayek feels that when Government tries to dominate the social system by making people forcibly inculcate a certain habit, such a condition is bound to happen. People try to find ways which not only fulfill their preferences but also satisfy the law makers. The Government damaged the dynamics of a healthy society and was now bearing the brunt of its past deeds.

5. Hayek argues that by no means should a centralized bureaucracy be allowed to design preferences for hundreds of thousands of people, without even consulting them. In such a system, with the passage of time, unforeseen consequences spring up. Government can bind people to its chosen course for a time but the impositions cannot limit their options for long. [C■] The quarter century that has passed since commencement of the effort to redesign the Chinese family is leaving behind its own trail.

6. The Government needs to be careful now. It has to invent new remedies to address this problem. It needs to redesign the social fabric so that programs like ‘Care for Girls’ get support of the masses, who seem to have little faith in the system. They view the new program for the girl child in the same resigned manner as the program that was forced on them in the past. Some women social workers are of the view that the fall of sex ratio has been an advantage for the women of China, as their social value has increased. [D■] The Government policy has in a way helped uplift the status of females. The real fear now is that China will soon be faced with hordes of bachelors at war with their brethren over finding their brides. The “surplus sons” of China need to stop interfering with the social system.

Question 43: The word "havoc" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. ordinary problem

B. great destruction and trouble

C. serious dispute

D. an infectious disease

Question 44: What is the main thrust of paragraph 1?

A. Government is providing incentives to girls.

B. Government is trying to decipher implications of the census records.

C. Government is devising polices to undermine the position of boys in the society.

D. Government is extending incentives to encourage parents with single girls

Question 45: What is the "blueprint" as discussed in paragraph 1?

A. It is a list of rules for the Chinese people to follow to maintain population control.

B. It is a rough plan for regulating community behavior.

C. It is the Government’s plan containing details of regulations and incentives to improve the girl child ratio.

D. It is a printed guide for conduct rules governing sex ratio.

Question 46: The word “teeming” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. overflowing

B. female population

C. couples

D. general population

Question 47: What was the vision behind the government's policy discussed in paragraph 2?

A. The vision about China with women at top positions in the government

B. The vision for China to control its burgeoning population in near future

C. The vision about a female dominated society

D. The vision that Chinese young men and women would find life partners among themselves

Question 48: The word "inculcate" as used in paragraph 4 means

A. calculate the pros and cons

B. forting somebody to do one's bidding

C. get into the habit of

D. impressing upon the mind by persistent urging

Question 49: How has "One Child Policy" supposedly improved the value of females? (Refer paragraph 6)

A. Due to scarcity of girl child, there is a perceived sense of "value".

B. Government has worked hard to promote the policy.

C. Low female ratio has helped the cause of health of the girl child.

D. Females are able to get good education as family expenditure is limited.

Question 50: Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage:

“Another reason is that daughters have to leave their parents after marriage to enrich their husband's family.”

Where would the sentence best fit?

[A■]

[B■]

[C■]

[D■]

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 12

1C	2D	3B	4A	5A
6C	7D	8B	9A	10D
11A	12A	13D	14B	15C
16A	17D	18B	19A	20B
21B	22C	23C	24C	25D
26B	27D	28C	29D	30C
31C	32D	33A	34B	35C
36C	37A	38B	39D	40C
41B	42A	43B	44D	45C
46A	47B	48C	49A	50B

----------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 13)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 1. In 2012, 9% of the energy consumed in the USA came from the renewable sources. Out of this, hydro-power accounted for 16%.

A. costumed

B. recycled

C. produced

D. utilized

Question 2. Corn, domesticated by the American Indians, was brought to Europe by Columbus.

A. reared

B. implanted

C. cultivated

D. trained

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. technology

B. dependent

C. economics

D. achievement

Question 4.

A. endangered

B. necessary

C. humidity

D. incredible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. They asked me what did happen last night, but I was unable to tell them.

A. tell them

B. what did happen

C. unable

D. last night

Question 6. It was not until the end of prehistoric times that the first wheeled vehicles appearing.

A. appearing

B. the first

C. not until the end

D. prehistoric

Question 7. Some people often say that using cars is not as convenient than using motorbikes.

A. using cars

B. than using

C. often say

D. motorbikes

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question.

One of the factors contributing to the intense nature of twenty-first-century stress is our continual exposure to media - particularly to an overabundance of news. If you feel stressed out by the news, you are far from alone. Yet somehow many of us seem unable to prevent ourselves from tuning in to an extreme degree. The further back we go in human history, the longer news took to travel from place to place, and the less news we had of distant people and lands altogether. The printing press obviously changed all that, as did every subsequent development in transportation and telecommunication.

When television came along, it proliferated like a population of rabbits. In 1950, there were 100,000 television sets in North American homes; one year later there were more than a million. Today, it’s not unusual for a home to have three or more television sets, each with cable access to perhaps over a hundred channels. News is the subject of many of those channels, and on several of them it runs 24 hours a day. What’s more, after the traumatic events of September 11, 2001, live new-casts were paired with perennial text crawls across the bottom of the screen - so that viewers could stay abreast of every story all the time. Needless to say, the news that is reported to us is not good news, but rather disturbing images and sound bytes alluding to disaster (natural and man-made), upheaval, crime, scandal, war, and the like.

Compounding the problem is that when actual breaking news is scarce, most broadcasts fill in with waistline, hairline, or very existence in the future. This variety of story tends to treat with equal alarm a potentially lethal flu outbreak and the bogus claims of a wrinkle cream that overpromises smooth skin. Are humans meant to be able to process so much trauma - not to mention so much overblown anticipation of potential trauma - at once? The human brain, remember, is programmed to slip into alarm mode when danger looms. Danger looms for someone, somewhere at every moment. Exposing ourselves to such input without respite and without perspective cannot be anything other than a source of chronic stress.

Question 8. According to the passage, which of the following has contributed to the intense nature of twenty- first century stress ?

A. Our inability to control ourselves

B. An overabundance of special news

C. The degree to which stress affects our life

D. Our continual exposure to the media

Question 9. In the past, we had less news of distant people and lands because________.

A. printing, transportation, and telecommunications were not developed

B. means of communication and transportation were not yet invented

C. the printing press changed the situation too slowly

D. most people lived in distant towns and villages

Question 10. According to the passage, our continual exposure to bad news without perspective is obviously________.

A. a source of defects in human brain

B. the result of human brain’s switch to alarm mode

C. a source of chronic stress

D. the result of an overabundance of good news

Question 11. According to the passage, when there is not enough actual breaking news, broadcasts________.

A. are full of dangerous diseases such as flu

B. are forced to publicise an alarming increase in crime

C. send out frightening stories about potential dangers

D. send out live newscasts paired with text across the screen

Question 12. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. Many people are under stress caused by the media.

B. The only source of stress in our modern life is the media.

C. The news that is reported to us is not good news.

D. Many TV channels supply the public with breaking news.

Question 13. The word “slip” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________.

A. release

B. fail

C. fall

D. bring

Question 14. The word “traumatic” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to________.

A. upsetting

B. boring

C. exciting

D. fascinating

Question 15. What is probably the best title for this passage?

A. The Media - A Major Cause of Stress

B. More Modern Life - More Stress

C. Developments in Telecommunications

D. Effective Ways to Beat Stress

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 16. - Michel: "I failed my driving test again!" - Nick: “___________”

A. Congratulations!

B. It's my pleasure.

C. I'm sorry to hear that.

D. Don't mention it.

Question 17. - Anna: “Would you like a glass of beer, Emma?” - Emma: “_________”

A. No, I don’t like.

B. Yes, here you are.

C. I wouldn’t say no.

D. Yes, not too bad.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 18. In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental improvements.

A. something sad

B. something to entertain

C. something enjoyable

D. something to suffer

Question 19. Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.

A. fluctuate

B. stay unchanged

C. remain unstable

D. restrain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 20. My friend bought________ from a shop on Tran Phu street.

A. a nice leather brown belt

B. a nice brown leather belt

C. a leather brown nice belt

D. a brown nice leather belt

Question 21. He was so mean that he couldn’t bear to________ the smallest sum of money for the charity appeal.

A. let out

B. pay off

C. give in

D. part with

Question 22. Thousands of people came to see the Queen________ the rain.

A. according to

B. in spite of

C. owing to

D. because

Question 23. From an early age, Wolfgang had a(n)________ for music.

A. interest

B. tendency

C. passion

D. involvement

Question 24. She was so tired last night that she slept like________ until 10 o’clock this morning.

A. a log

B. death

C. a squirrel

D. a hill

Question 25. The last person________ will have to turn off the lights.

A. left

B. leaving

C. have left

D. to leave

Question 26. I thought I saw water in the distance but it must have been an optical________.

A. illusion

B. deception

C. delusion

D. error

Question 27. He usually travels to________ Philadelphia by________ train.

A. the/ a

B. Ø/ a

C. the/ the

D. Ø/ Ø

Question 28. They have just visited the town________ location was little known.

A. whose

B. where

C. that

D. which

Question 29. I'm becoming increasingly________. Last week I locked myself out of the house twice.

A. forgetful

B. absent

C. mindless

D. oblivious

Question 30. Regular exercise and good diet will bring________ fitness and health.

A. up

B. about

C. from

D. to

Question 31. This shirt is________ that one.

A. not nearly as expensive as

B. a bit less expensive

C. as much expensive as

D. much far expensive than

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.

Global warming is the current increase in temperature of the Earth’s surface (both land and water) as well as its atmosphere. Average temperature around the world have risen by 0.75°C (1.4°F) (32)_____ the last 100 years. About two thirds of this increase has occurred since 1975 in the past, when the Earth experienced increases in temperature it was the result of natural causes, but today it is being caused by accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere produced by human (33)______. The natural greenhouse effect maintains the Earth’s temperature at a safe level making it (34)_____ for humans and many other life forms to exist. However, since The Industrial Revolution what benefits human has significantly enhanced the greenhouse effect (35)______ the Earth’s average temperature to rise by almost 1°C . This is creating the global warming (36)_____ we see today.

Question 32.

A. over

B. of

C. with

D. by

Question 33.

A. behaviors

B. relationships

C. actions

D. activities

Question 34.

A. possible

B. liable

C. likely

D. able

Question 35.

A. causing

B. making

C. made

D. caused

Question 36.

A. which

B. what

C. who

D. where

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 37.

A. devise

B. promise

C. realise

D. surprise

Question 38.

A. distinguished

B. developed

C. influenced

D. addicted

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

THE SAVANNAH

The tourist looking at the African savannah on a summer afternoon might be excused for thinking that the wide yellow grass plain was completely deserted of life, almost a desert. With only a few small thorn trees sticking out through the veldt, there seems to be almost no place for a living creature to hide. However, under those trees you might find small steenbok, sleeping in the shade, and waiting for the night to fall. There may even be a small group of lions somewhere, their bodies exactly the same shade as the tall grass around them. In the holes in the ground a host of tiny creatures, from rabbits and badgers to rats and' snakes are waiting for the heat to finish.

The tall grass also hides the fact that there may be a small stream running across the middle of the plain. One clue that there may be water here is the sight of a majestic Marshall eagle circling slowly over the grassland. When he drops, he may come up with a small fish, or maybe a grass snake that has been waiting at the edge of a pool in the hope of catching a frog. The best time to see the animals then, is in the evening, just as the sun is setting.

The best time of the year to come is in late September, or early August, just before the rains. Then the animals must come to the waterholes, as there is no other place for them to drink. And they like to come while it is still light; so they can see if any dangers are creeping up on them. So it is at sunset, and after the night falls, that the creatures of the African veld rise and go about their business.

Question 39. Why do animals come to the waterholes while it is still light?

A. To avoid people watching them

B. To see their ways better

C. To be alert to the possibility of danger

D. To drink enough water before hunting

Question 40. By "go about their business" the writer means________.

A. The animals go to the river to drink

B. The animals go on with their normal activity

C. Tourism in Africa is big business

D. The animals are observed by naturalists

Question 41. What kind of book does the text seem to be from?

A. A book for experts on wildlife

B. General non-fiction

C. A history of Africa

D. A fictional story

Question 42. The phrase "a host of " in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to________.

A. a gang of

B. only a few

C. a large number of

D. a group of

Question 43. The phrase "be excused for” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to________.

A. easily make a mistake of

B. be actually forgiven for

C. feel sorry for

D. be regretting for

Question 44. The word "he" in paragraph 2 refers to________.

A. a small fish

B. the writer

C. a Marshall eagle

D. a person

Question 45. The savannah appears to be empty because________.

A. The animals are sleeping

B. They have been frightened by an eagle

C. The animals have gone about their business

D. The temperature prevents much activity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.

A. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep.

B. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping.

C. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.

D. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.

Question 47. Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of several deadly diseases.

A. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.

B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases.

C. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.

D. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48. People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

A. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

B. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.

C. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.

D. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

Question 49. "Why don't we wear sunglasses?" our grandpa would say when we went out on bright sunny days.

A. Our grandpa asked us why we did not wear sunglasses when going out on bright sunny days.

B. Our grandpa reminded us of going out with sunglasses on bright sunny days.

C. Our grandpa used to suggest wearing sunglasses when we went out on bright sunny days.

D. Our grandpa would warn us against wearing sunglasses on bright sunny days.

Question 50. I am sure he did not know that his brother graduated with flying colors.

A. He cannot have known that his brother graduated with very high marks.

B. He may not know that his brother is flying gradually up in a colorful balloon.

C. He should not have been envious of his brother's achievement.

D. That his brother graduated with flying colors must have been appreciated by him.

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 13

1D	2C	3C	4B	5B
6A	7B	8D	9A	10C
11C	12B	13C	14A	15A
16C	17C	18C	19B	20B
21D	22B	23C	24A	25D
26A	27D	28A	29A	30B
31A	32A	33D	34A	35A
36A	37B	38D	39C	40B
41B	42C	43A	44C	45D
46A	47A	48A	49C	50A

----------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 14)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. cinema

B. politics

C. statistics

D. primary

Question 2:

A. house work

B. challenge

C. letter

D. hotel

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. explained

B. jumped

C. wondered

D. called

Question 4:

A. bags

B. halves

C. photographs

D. speeds

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: The factory is said ______ in a fire two years ago.

A. to have been destroyed

B. being destroyed

C. to destroy

D. to have destroyed

Question 6: There are regional ______ between the North and the South of Viet Nam.

A. differ

B. different

C. difference

D. differences

Question 7: ______ the hotel rooms are reserved throughout peak season.

A. Almost

B. Almost of

C. Most of all

D. Almost all of

Question 8: Did Mary get ______ job she applied for?

A. an

B. 0

C. a

D. the

Question 9: We all agree ______ him ______ what he said.

A. on -at

B. in- for

C. to- with

D. with- on

Question 10: I’ll stay in the Golden Hotel in New York. Why don’t you guys _______?

A. visit

B. visit in

C. drop in

D. call in

Question 11: By the time we ______ there, they ______, I’m afraid.

A. will get- have left

B. get- will have left

C. get- have left

D. will get- will have left

Question 12: John said that if he ______ in my position, he ______ for the job.

A. had been – would have applied

B. were - would apply

C. is – will apply

D. has been - would be applying

Question 13: He admitted ______ the suitcase without asking its owner.

A. have opened

B. to open

C. to opening

D. having opened

Question 14: His _______ behavior was unacceptable in this case.

A. childish

B. child

C. childless

D. children

Question 15: There are the books ______ my father wrote when he was young.

A. which

B. whose

C. what

D. on which

Question 16: He asked me ______.

A. since when I am waiting

B. since when I waited

C. how long I have been waiting

D. how long I had been waiting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 17: - Tom: “You’ve got a lovely singing voice, Mary.” - Mary: “__________ .”

A. Congratulations

B. You must be kidding

C. Don’t mention them

D. It’s all right

Question 18: - John: “Will you be able to come to the meeting this afternoon?” - Jack: “_______”.

A. Of course, you will

B. Thankyou

C. I’m afraid not

D. I’m sorry not

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: The first year at colledge was probably the best and most challenging year of a student’s life.

A. difficult

B. interesting

C. exciting

D. memorable

Question 20: It is likely that space-shuttle technology will be used in normal air travel soon.

A. probable

B. unbelievable

C. questionable

D. doubtful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21: I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice.

A. being careless of things

B. remembering to do things

C. forgetful of one’s past

D. often forgetting things

Question 22: The drainage of wetlands, cutting of forests and urbanization have seriously damaged natural habitat of animals.

A. slightly

B. badly

C. dangerously

D. honestly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Most big cities were built long before the heyday of the private car. As a result, they rarely have enough space for moving traffic or parked vehicles, and long queues of (23)_______ vehicles are a common sight. Indeed, some cities end up being almost permanently (24)______ during the day. Those that have a relatively free flow of traffic at non-peak periods of the day do not escape either. The (25)______ hour of early morning or early evening can easily see traffic brought to a (26)_______. The effect of exhaust fumes on air pollution in cities has been well documented. Buses might be seen as the solution, but they move slowly because of the sheer volume of other traffic, thus encouraging more commuters to abandon (27)_______ transport.

Question 23:

A. standing

В. settled

С. stationary

D. static

Question 24:

A. stuffed

В. saturated

С. crammed

D. congested

Question 25:

A. push

В. rush

С. hasty

D. hurry

Question 26:

A. standstill

В. hold-up

С. jam

D. freeze

Question 27:

A. civic

В. mass

С. public

D. popular

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Many people buy and use copied programs for the computer. This illegal copying of computer software has become a huge industry because the software is much cheaper than the original programs. Illegal software can be found on sale in any part of the world, although it is more readily available in Asia than in Western countries. Software manufacturers have been trying to get governments to stop this copying or “printing”. In an attempt to get rid of “software pirates”, police have seized software from stores and fined the owners. This has been partially successful, but manufacturers are still losing a lot of money. By using this kind of software, computer owners risk damaging their computers. Illegally copied software can carry computer viruses which could wipe out information stored on the computer’s hard driver.

Question 28: In some countries, owners of illegal software have ___.

A. asked the police to help them

B. asked their government to stop the pirating.

C. been forced to pay money.

D. given their software to the police.

Question 29: The word “it” in line 3 refers to ________.

A. the world

B. illegal software

C. computer

D. program

Question 30: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

A. Copied programmes for computer- Be aware.

B. Software and hard ware

C. Sharing software

D. Computer virus and solution

Question 31: Computer software is _____.

A. programs used by a computer.

B. part of all computers

C. pirated programs

D. poor quality

Question 32: People buy pirated software because it is ____.

A. good quality

B. readily available

C. inexpensive

D. easy to use

Question 33: According to the passage, ____ software can damage computers.

A. all

B. no

C. illegal

D. hard driver

Question 34: Pirated software is found ____.

A. worldwide

B. only in Asia

C. only in the West

D. in very few countries

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally, spelling, however, cannot.

Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.

Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips for the blind), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.

Question 35: The word “signifies” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.

A. indicates

B. completes

C. accomplishes

D. attracts

Question 36: How many different forms of communication are mentioned here?

A. 7 B. 5 C. 11 D. 9

Question 37: People need to communicate in order to _______.

A. create language barriers

B. be picturesque and exact

C. keep from reading with their fingertips

D. express thoughts and feelings

Question 38: Which of the following best summarizes this passage?

A. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.

B. When language is a barrier, there are other forms of communication.

C. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.

D. Everybody uses only one form of communication.

Question 39: Which form other than oral speech would be the most commonly used among blind people?

A. Signal flags

B. Picture signs

C. Braille

D. Body language

Question 40: Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language.

B. There are many forms of communication in existence today.

C. Verbalization is the most common form of communication.

D. The deaf and mute can use an oral form of communication.

Question 41: The word “these” in the first paragraph refers to ________.

A. the deaf and the mute

B. tourists

C. sign language motions

D. thoughts and feelings

Question 42: Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for _______.

A. spelling

B. ideas

C. whole words

D. expressions

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: I gave my address to a man I met him on the train last Sunday.

A. him

B. gave

C. to

D. the train

Question 44: The accident looked seriously but fortunately nobody was injured.

A. was

B. fortunately

C. seriously

D. injured

Question 45: Since the early 20th century, women had a lot of chances to pursue their interest.

A. since

B. had

C. to pursue

D. early

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: She is studying not only English but also French.

A. English and French are her favourite subject.

B. She is studying both English and French.

C. She likes both English and French.

D. She isn’t studying English but she is studying French.

Question 47: It’s been ten years since I last saw my father.

A. I see my father once every ten years.

B. I haven’t seen my father for ten years.

C. My father is ten years old.

D. I didn’t see my father ten years ago.

Question 48: I bought a dog because my son wanted a pet.

A. If my son wants a pet, I would buy a dog.

B. If my son hadn’t wanted a pet, I wouldn’t buy a dog.

C. If my son didn’t want a pet, I wouldn’t buy a dog.

D. If my son hadn’t wanted a pet, I wouldn’t have bought a dog.

Question 49: This computer is badly damaged. It can not be repaired.

A. This computer is so bad damaged that it can not be repaired.

B. This computer is too badly damaged to repair.

C. This computer is so badly damaged that nobody can repair it.

D. All are correct.

Question 50: Birh-control was developed. Women could delay having children.

A. In spite of the development of birth-control, women could delay having children.

B. Because of the development of birth-control, women could delay having children.

C. In order to develop birth-control, women could delay having children.

D. But for the development of birth-control, women could delay having children.

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiêng anh 12 - Đề số 14

1C	2D	3B	4C	5A
6D	7D	8D	9D	10C
11B	12B	13D	14A	15A
16D	17B	18C	19A	20A
21B	22A	23C	24D	25B
26A	27C	28C	29B	30A
31A	32C	33C	34A	35A
36D	37D	38B	39C	40D
41C	42A	43A	44C	45B
46B	47B	48D	49C	50B

----------------------------------------------------------------

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Học kì 2

Năm học 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút

Đề thi Học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 15)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions

Question 1: This is new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These clothes are still dirty.

A. to be strange

B. to be broken

C. to be better

D. to be expensive

Question 2: in most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.

A. constructive

B. optional

C. beneficial

D. mandatory

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaningto the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 3: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.

A. delighted

B. exciting

C. Informative

D. essential

Question 4: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the island.

A. fruits and vegetables

B. flowers and trees

C. plants and animals

D. mountains and forest

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Clara Barton became known as “The Angel of the Battlefield” during the American Civial War. Born in Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821, Clara Barton’s interest in helping soldiers on the battlefield began when she was told army stories from her father. Another event that influenced her decision to help soldiers was an accident her brother had. His injuries were cared for by Barton for 2 years. At the time, she was only 11 years old. Barton began teaching school at the age of 15. She taught for 18 years before she moved to Washington, D.C. in 1854.

The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started was service by helping the soldiers with their needs. At the battle of Bull Run, Clara Barton received permission from the government to take care of the sick and hurt. Barton did this with great empathy and kindness. She acknowledged each soldier as a person. Her endurance and courage on the battlefield were admired by many. When the war ended in 1865, she used 4 years of her life to assist the government in searching for soldiers who were missing during the war.

The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble physically. In 1869, her doctors recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. Whle she was on vacation, she became involved with the International Red Cross, an organization set up by the Geneva Convention in 1864. Clara Barton realized that the red Cross would be a big help to the United States. After she returned to the United States, she worked very hard to create an American red Cross. She talked to government leaders and let American people know about the Red Cross. In 1881, the Notional Society of the Red Cross was finally established with its headquarters in Washington,D.C. Clara Barton managed its activities for 23 years.

Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At the age of 79, she helped flood victims in Galveston, Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red Cross in 1904. She was 92 years old and had truly earned her titled “The Angel of the Battlefield”.

Question 5: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young Clara Barton?

A. She helped her father when he was a soldier.

B. She suffered from an accident when she was 11.

C. She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years.

D. She helped her brother who hurt in an accident.

Question 6: The word this in paragraph 2 refers to

A. recognized each soldier as a person

B. cooked for soldiers

C. took care of the sick and hurt

D. received permission

Question 7: What can be the best title of the reading passage?

A. The American Red Cross

B. The angel of the Battlefield

C. The American Civil War

D. The International Red Cross

Question 8: The word acknowledged in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by

A. believed

B. recognized

C. nursed

D. pleaded

Question 9: The phrase broke out in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. extended

B. broke down

C. closed

D. began

Question 10: What can be inferred about the government?

A. It had respect for Clara Barton.

B. It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness.

C. It did not have the money to hep Clara Barton.

D. It did not always agree with Clara Barton.

Question 11: What does the author mention about the American Red Cross?

A. It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention.

B. Barton tried to have it set up in America.

C. The American people were not interested in the Red Cross.

D. It was first established in the United States.

Question 12: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers and she was the founder of the Red Cross.

B. Clara Barton became a nurse during the American Civil War.

C. Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old.

D. Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 13: Andy: "What do you think of football?" ~ Bob: "_____"

A. Well, it's beyond my expectation.

B. It's none of my business.

C. Of course, football players are excellent.

D. I am crazy about it.

Question 14: - "Excuse me. Where‟s the parking lot?" - “_______”

A. You are going the wrong way. It‟s not here.

B. Do you get lost? I do too.

C. You missed the turn. It‟s back that way

D. Why do you ask me? I don‟t know.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

A worrying question which_______ (15) global attention is severe overpopulation and its drastic effects in the countries of the Third World. In regions where the birth rate is extremely high, poverty and starvation are rife . In India, there is________(16) of thirty five infants being born every minute, yet the most shocking figures are those which______(17) the enormous number of the victims of famine in certain African territories. Communities afflicted with acute destitution are additionally confronted with illiteracy, life in appalling conditions and infectious diseases decimating the indigenous populations. There is an urgent need for these problems to be solved . Unless measures are taken to__________(18) the suffering of the impoverished underdeveloped nations, desperate crowds of immigrants will persist in flooding the richer states in search of a brighter future. It's the most _____________ (19) task for the international giants nowadays to help the poor populations get out of the poverty trap.

Question 15:

A. ask

B. wishes

C. insists

D. requires

Question 16:

A. an average

B. a proportion

C. a ratio

D. a measure

Question 17:

A. appear

B. refer

C. indicate

D. comprise

Question 18:

A. evaporate

B. ease

C. discard

D. vanish

Question 19:

A. plaguing

B. rousing

C. challenging

D. confronting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 20: I have to buy my parents a new house ............................ price.

A. in place of

B. in case of

C. regardless of

D. not mention

Question 21: Someone bought a Louis Vuitton for a cheap price in the Philippines and later found out that it was ……………………………..

A. unfaitheful

B. untrue

C. fake.

D. artificial

Question 22: I would like to thank you so much …………..of my family.

A. part

B. on behalf

C. business

D. interest

Question 23: . My neighbour is driving me mad! It seems that………….it is at night , ……………he plays his music!

A. the less / the more loud

B. the less / less

C. the more late / the more loudlier

D. the later / the louder

Question 24: Now that he has retired, he lives partly on his pension and partly on the ______ on his post office savings account.

A. interest

B. salary

C. wages

D. income

Question 25: We are looking for someone who can ______ with the rest of our team.

A. get up

B. fit in

C. act up

D. work off

Question 26: It is a ________

A. a beautiful old Indian lamp.

B. a beautiful Indian old lamp.

C. an Indian beautiful old lamp.

D. an old beautiful Indian lamp.

Question 27: It is imperative that his recovery ______ the treatment for at least two months.

A. continue

B. to continue

C. continued

D. continues

Question 28: ________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.

A. As the boy was intelligent

B. Intelligent as the boy was

C. As intelligent the boy was

D. Intelligent as was the boy

Question 29: _________ it with my own eyes, I would never have believed it.

A. Provided I had seen

B. Unless I had not seen

C. If I had seen

D. Had I not seen

Question 30: …………….the National High School Graduation Exam with flying colours surprises me.

A. It is that she passed

B. That she passed

C. She passed

D. That It is she passed

Question 31: His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very……………………. .

A. narrow-minded

B. open-minded

C. kind-hearted

D. absent-minded

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

During the 19th century, women in the U. S organized and participated in a large number of reform movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system, improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, and most importantly to free slaves. Some women saw similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Women like Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were feminists and abolitionists who supported the rights of both women and blacks. A number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd Garrison and Wendell Phillips also supported the rights of women to speak and participate equally with men in anti- slavery activities. Probably more than any other movement, abolitionism offered women a previously denied entry into politics. They became involved primarily in order to better their living conditions and the conditions of others.

When the Civil war ended in 1865, the 14th, and 15th, Amendments to the Constitution adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists influenced more and more women to demand the right to vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by feminists, but eastern states resisted more stubbornly than ever before. A woman's suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878 but it continually failed to pass until 1920, when the 19th Amendment granted women the right to vote.

Question 32: According to the passage, why did women become active in politics?

A. to improve the conditions of life that existed at the time.

B. to support Elizabeth Cady Stanton

C. to amend the Declaration of Independence

D. to be elected to public office.

Question 33: What does the 19th Amendment guarantee?

A. Citizenship for women

B. Citizenship for blacks

C. Voting rights for blacks

D. Voting rights for women

Question 34: When were women allowed to vote throughout the US?

A. After 1866

B. After 1878

C. After 1870

D. After 1920

Question 35: What is the topic of the passage?

A. Women's suffrage

B. Abolitionists

C. The Wyoming Territory.

D. The 14th and 15th Amendment

Question 36: The word" primarily" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ..............

A. somewhat

B. above all

C. always

D. finally

Question 37: What can not be inferred from the passage?

A. The abolitionists believed in anti- slavery activities.

B. The eastern states did not like the idea of women's right to vote.

C. The blacks were given the right to vote before women.

D. A women's suffrage bill had been discussed in the Congress for 50 years.

Question 38: What is not among the reformation movements of women?

A. freeing the slaves

B. prohibiting the sale of alcohol

C. passing the laws

D. reorganizing the prison

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 39: My friend Albert has decided to buy a motorbike. His car was stolen last week.

A. My friend Albert has decided to buy a motorbike has his car stolen last week.

B. My friend Albert has decided to buy a motorbike which car stolen last week.

C. My friend Albert whose car was stolen last week has decided to buy a motorbike.

D. My friend Albert, whose car was stolen last week, has decided to buy a motorbike.

Question 40: Mary was very disappointed, but she tried to keep calm.

A. Feeling disappoined, Mary tried to keep calm, but she failed.

B. Mary was too disappointed to keep calm.

C. Mary lost her temper because of her disappointment

D. Disappointed as she was, Mary tried to keep calm

Question 41: The student did not take to their new lecturer.

A. The student didn’t understand what the new lecturer said.

B. The new lecturer was unpopular with his students.

C. The new lecturer didn’t care his students.

D. The student didn’t follow the new lecturer

Question 42: Please never ever interrupt me when I’m in a meeting.

A. On no account am I ever to be interrupted when I’m in a meeting.

B. On no account I am ever to be interrupted when I’m in a meeting.

C. For no account I am ever to be interrupted when I’m in a meeting.

D. For no account am I ever to be interrupted when I’m in a meeting.

Question 43: My boyfriend is very short- tempered

A. My boyfriend never loses his temper.

B. My boyfriend loses his temper easily.

C. My boyfriend is very patient.

D. My boyfriend is very calm.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the preposition of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 44:

A. tonight

B. involve

C. control

D. purpose

Question 45:

A. hurricane

B. photograph

C. recommend

D. separate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 46:

A. dictates

B. pleasure

C. cost

D. singular

Question 47:

A. breakfast

B. meat

C. heat

D. beat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 48: There are many jobs in accountant nowadays

A. There

B. jobs

C. accountant

D. nowadays

Question 49: If a person really wants to succeed, they must always work hard

A. person

B. really wants

C. they

D. work hard

Question 50: Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and indication its correct use.

A. frequently

B. the origin

C. defined

D. indication

Đáp án đề thi Học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 15

1C	2B	3D	4C	5D
6C	7B	8B	9D	10A
11B	12D	13D	14A	15D
16A	17C	18B	19C	20C
21C	22B	23D	24A	25B
26A	27A	28B	29D	30B
31A	32A	33D	34D	35A
36B	37D	38C	39D	40D
41B	42A	43B	44D	45C
46B	47A	48C	49C	50D

----------------------------------------------------------------

Bài viết liên quan

1170

Tải tài liệu

« Trang trước

Trang sau »

Bài viết có lượt xem cao

Đồng phân của C5H10 và gọi tên | Công thức cấu tạo của C5H10 và gọi tên (47322 lượt xem)

Công nghệ 12 Bài 9: Thiết kế mạch điện tử đơn giản (41139 lượt xem)

Đồng phân của C4H10 và gọi tên | Công thức cấu tạo của C4H10 và gọi tên (36498 lượt xem)

Đề thi giữa học kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 mới năm 2021 - 2022 có đáp án (5 đề) (32957 lượt xem)

Bộ 30 đề thi Học kì 1 Ngữ văn lớp 11 có đáp án (28276 lượt xem)

Đồng phân của C5H8 và gọi tên | Công thức cấu tạo của C5H8 và gọi tên (23644 lượt xem)

Công nghệ 11 Bài 1: Tiêu chuẩn trình bày bản vẽ kĩ thuật hay, chi tiết (21060 lượt xem)

Công thức cấu tạo của C4H8O2 và gọi tên | Đồng phân của C4H8O2 và gọi tên (20940 lượt xem)

Trắc nghiệm Tin học 11 Bài 4 có đáp án năm 2021 - 2022 (19688 lượt xem)

1A	2C	3B	4A	5A
6B	7A	8D	9C	10C
11B	12C	13D	14D	15B
16A	17C	18B	19D	20B
21D	22B	23C	24C	25B
26A	27C	28A	29A	30B
31B	32D	33B	34A	35D
36C	37B	38D	39B	40D

1B	2C	3D	4A	5B
6C	7C	8C	9A	10C
11C	12D	13C	14C	15B
16B	17B	18C	19D	20B
21B	22A	23D	24A	25C
26D	27C	28A	29D	30A
31D	32A	33D	34B	35D
36D	37B	38D	39A	40B

1C	2C	3D	4A	5A
6A	7D	8B	9B	10A
11A	12B	13A	14B	15B
16A	17A	18B	19B	20C
21C	22C	23B	24A	25C
26D	27C	28B	29B	30C
31A	32D	33C	34A	35B
36A	37A	38A	39B	40D

1D	2B	3C	4A	5C
6B	7A	8A	9B	10D
11C	12A	13D	14C	15D
16B	17C	18D	19A	20A
21D	22C	23D	24B	25D
26A	27B	28A	29A	30C
31C	32B	33B	34C	35A
36C	37A	38B	39D	40B

1B	2C	3A	4A	5D
6B	7C	8C	9B	10A
11D	12B	13D	14A	15D
16A	17C	18D	19A	20A
21C	22C	23D	24A	25C
26B	27B	28D	29D	30C
31C	32D	33A	34B	35A
36B	37C	38A	39C	40B

1B	11A	21D	31D	41A
2D	12B	22C	32C	42C
3A	13B	23C	33C	43A
4D	14D	24C	34D	44C
5D	15B	25B	35B	45A
6A	16C	26D	36D	46C
7A	17B	27B	37D	47A
8C	18C	28A	38D	48B
9D	19B	29B	39C	49D
10A	20A	30A	40B	50C

1A	11C	21B	31B
2D	12C	22A	32D
3A	13B	23D	33B
4B	14B	24B	34C
5C	15A	25C	35A
6B	16B	26B	36C
7D	17A	27C	37D
8D	18D	28A	38D
9D	19A	29D	39A
10B	20C	30B	40C

1C	11A	21B	31C
2A	12A	22A	32B
3A	13A	23D	33B
4C	14A	24A	34D
5A	15A	25A	35C
6C	16B	26A	36A
7D	17A	27B	37C
8B	18A	28B	38D
9A	19B	29C	39A
10A	20B	30C	40B

1D	11B	21D	31A
2A	12C	22A	32D
3C	13B	23B	33C
4D	14C	24B	34B
5B	15A	25B	35C
6C	16C	26C	36A
7C	17C	27D	37D
8A	18D	28A	38B
9C	19B	29B	39C
10B	20C	30C	40C

1A	11B	21C	31D
2D	12C	22A	32B
3C	13D	23D	33A
4B	14B	24B	34D
5C	15A	25B	35A
6A	16D	26C	36C
7D	17B	27B	37D
8B	18A	28C	38A
9D	19A	29A	39A
10C	20D	30B	40A

1A	2C	3B	4A	5A
6B	7A	8D	9C	10C
11B	12C	13D	14D	15B
16A	17C	18B	19D	20B
21D	22B	23C	24C	25B
26A	27C	28A	29A	30B
31B	32D	33B	34A	35D
36C	37B	38D	39B	40D

1B	2C	3D	4A	5B
6C	7C	8C	9A	10C
11C	12D	13C	14C	15B
16B	17B	18C	19D	20B
21B	22A	23D	24A	25C
26D	27C	28A	29D	30A
31D	32A	33D	34B	35D
36D	37B	38D	39A	40B

1C	2C	3D	4A	5A
6A	7D	8B	9B	10A
11A	12B	13A	14B	15B
16A	17A	18B	19B	20C
21C	22C	23B	24A	25C
26D	27C	28B	29B	30C
31A	32D	33C	34A	35B
36A	37A	38A	39B	40D

1D	2B	3C	4A	5C
6B	7A	8A	9B	10D
11C	12A	13D	14C	15D
16B	17C	18D	19A	20A
21D	22C	23D	24B	25D
26A	27B	28A	29A	30C
31C	32B	33B	34C	35A
36C	37A	38B	39D	40B

1B	2C	3A	4A	5D
6B	7C	8C	9B	10A
11D	12B	13D	14A	15D
16A	17C	18D	19A	20A
21C	22C	23D	24A	25C
26B	27B	28D	29D	30C
31C	32D	33A	34B	35A
36B	37C	38A	39C	40B

1B	11A	21D	31D	41A
2D	12B	22C	32C	42C
3A	13B	23C	33C	43A
4D	14D	24C	34D	44C
5D	15B	25B	35B	45A
6A	16C	26D	36D	46C
7A	17B	27B	37D	47A
8C	18C	28A	38D	48B
9D	19B	29B	39C	49D
10A	20A	30A	40B	50C

1A	11C	21B	31B
2D	12C	22A	32D
3A	13B	23D	33B
4B	14B	24B	34C
5C	15A	25C	35A
6B	16B	26B	36C
7D	17A	27C	37D
8D	18D	28A	38D
9D	19A	29D	39A
10B	20C	30B	40C

1C	11A	21B	31C
2A	12A	22A	32B
3A	13A	23D	33B
4C	14A	24A	34D
5A	15A	25A	35C
6C	16B	26A	36A
7D	17A	27B	37C
8B	18A	28B	38D
9A	19B	29C	39A
10A	20B	30C	40B

1D	11B	21D	31A
2A	12C	22A	32D
3C	13B	23B	33C
4D	14C	24B	34B
5B	15A	25B	35C
6C	16C	26C	36A
7C	17C	27D	37D
8A	18D	28A	38B
9C	19B	29B	39C
10B	20C	30C	40C

1A	11B	21C	31D
2D	12C	22A	32B
3C	13D	23D	33A
4B	14B	24B	34D
5C	15A	25B	35A
6A	16D	26C	36C
7D	17B	27B	37D
8B	18A	28C	38A
9D	19A	29A	39A
10C	20D	30B	40A