Bộ 30 đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án
Bộ 30 đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án giúp học sinh ôn luyện để đạt điểm cao trong bài thi Tiếng anh 12 Giữa học kì 2. Mời các bạn cùng đón xem:
[Năm 2023] Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2022 - 2023
Môn: Tiếng anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 1)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1:
A. critical
B. solution
C. perform
D. reaction
Question 2:
A. alteration
B. observe
C. achievement
D. specific
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 3: What were some of the things that brought ______ the Resolution?
A. around
B. up
C. on
D. about
Question 4: Poor management brought the company to______ of collapse.
A. the ring
B. the edge
C. the brink
D. the foot
Question 5: John ______ this task yesterday morning, but I did it for him. He owes me a thank-you.
A. must have completed
B. may have completed
C. should have completed
D. could have completed
Question 6: I may look half asleep, but I can assure you I am ______ awake.
A. broad
B. well
C. full
D. wide
Question 7: I suggest the room ______ before Christmas.
A. should decorate
B. is decorated
C. were decorated
D. be decorated
Question 8: It is time every student ______ harder for the coming exam.
A. worked
B. should work
C. works
D. work
Question 9: Mr. Simpkims is the big ______ in the company as he has just been promoted to the position of Managing Director.
A. bread
B. meat
C. cheese
D. apple
Question 10: She is so ______ to her children that she has decided to quit her job to stay at home and look after Them.
A. persistent
B. kin
C. responsible
D. devoted
Question 11: The new sports complex ______ will accommodate an Olympic-sized swimming pool and others including fitness center, and a spa, to name just a few.
A. supplies
B. facilities
C. categories
D. qualities
Question 12: There ______ a number of reasons for the fall of the Roman Empire
A. are said being
B. are said to have been
C. said to be
D. was said being
Question 13: It’s silly of him to spend a lot of money buying ______.
A. a thick old wooden table
B. a thick wooden old table
C. an old wooden thick table
D. a wooden thick old table
Question 14: It’s important to project a(n) ______ image during the interview.
A. optimistic
B. cheerful
C. positive
D. upbeat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15: This new magazine is known for its comprehensive coverage of news.
A. superficial
B. indifferent
C. casual
D. inadequate
Question 16: James could not tell his parents about his many animal friends in the forest and the exciting things that he saw, but he found another way to express himself.
A. speak with voice
B. keep silent
C. write his thoughts
D. communicate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: The man: “You haven’t lived here long, have you?” - Alex: “__________.”
A. Yes, I have just moved here
B. No, only three months
C. Yes, just a few days
D. No, I live here for a long time
Question 18: Susan: “I have lost my purse.” - Her friend: “___________.”
A. It’s careless
B. Oh, what a pity
C. That’s nothing
D. Oh, be careful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need correction in each of the following questions
Question 19: Next week, when there will be an English club held here, I will give you more information about it.
A. there will be
B. held
C. will give
D. about
Question 20: Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is wood pulp, which is used in paper-making.
A. Many of the
B. obtained
C. the most
D. paper-making
Question 21: It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.
A. is believed
B. in the near future
C. be used to doing
D. such as
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Pitchforks were once carved entirely from wood, but today the have steel tines and wooden handle.
A. in the meantime
B. in one area
C. formerly
D. sometimes
Question 23: Her style of dress accentuated her extreme slenderness.
A. betrayed
B. emphasized
C. revealed
D. disfigured
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 24:
A. opponent
B. compose
C. podium
D. advocate
Question 25:
A. competitor
B. illegal
C. epidemic
D. education
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: The president offered his congratulations to the players when they won the cup.
A. The president congratulated the players on their winning the match.
B. When they won the cup, the players had been offered some congratulations from the president.
C. The president would offered the players congratulations if they won the match.
D. The president congratulated that the players had won the cup.
Question 27: A house in that district will cost at least $100,000.
A. If you have $100,000, you can buy a house in that district.
B. You won’t be able to buy a house in that district for less than $100,000.
C. You won’t be able to buy a house in that district for more than $100,000.
D. $100,000 is the maximum price for a house in that district.
Question 28: To get to work on time, they have to leave at 6.00am.
A. They always leave for work at 6.00am.
B. They have to leave very early to catch a bus to work.
C. Getting to work on time, for them, means leaving at 6.00am.
D. Leaving at 6.00am, they have never been late for work.
Question 29: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
B. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
C. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.
Question 30: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly resembled the original.
A. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not for the experts.
B. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the experts could judge it quite easily.
C. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wan’t genuine.
D. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
Đáp án đề thi Giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 1
1A |
2A |
3D |
4C |
5C |
6D |
7D |
8A |
9C |
10D |
11B |
12B |
13A |
14C |
15A |
16B |
17B |
18B |
19A |
20A |
21C |
22C |
23B |
24D |
25B |
26A |
27B |
28C |
29D |
30C |
----------------------------------------------------------------
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2022 - 2023
Môn: Tiếng anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 2)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1: The energy _______ from the sun is renewable and environmentally-friendly.
A. harnessing
B. is harnessed
C. which harnessed
D. harnessed
Question 2: We truly respected our father and always _______ by his rule.
A. submitted
B. obeyed
C. complied
D. abode
Question 3: The architects have made _______ use of glass and transparent plastic.
A. imaginative
B. imagine
C. imagination
D. imaginatively
Question 4: Tom denied _______ part in the fighting at school.
A. to take
B. take
C. to taking
D. taking
Question 5: Your brother hardly talks to anyone, _______?
A. does he
B. is he
C. doesn’t he
D. isn’t he
Question 6: Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be _______ to health.
A. crucial
B. supportive
C. receptive
D. destructive
Question 7: You looked exhausted. I think you’ve _______ more than you can handle.
A. turned on
B. taken up
C. turned up
D. taken on
Question 8: Only after she had finished the course did she realize she _____ a wrong choice.
A. had made
B. has made
C. had been making
D. was making
Question 9: It ______ Sue that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family.
A. shuld have been
B. must have been
C. can’t have been
D. needn’t have been
Question 10: If Paul _______ a job now, he wouldn’t be so unhappy.
A. has
B. has had
C. had
D. would have
Question 11: The wine had made him a little _______ and couldn’t control his movement.
A. narrow-minded
B. light-headed
C. light-footed
D. light-hearted
Question 12: You need to make ______ about what course to take at university.
A. a decision
B. a fortune
C. a guess
D. an impression
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 13: - Mike: “Do you think there will be pilotless planes?” – Joe: “_____”
A. I’m afraid I can’t.
B. What for? There are quite a few around.
C. Why not? There have been cars without drivers.
D. I’m glad you like it.
Question 14: - Julie: “_______” - Ann: “Yeah, not bad, I suppose.”
A. Do you see him often?
B. What are you thinking?
C. How did you meet him?
D. He is quite good-looking, isn’t he?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15: The way the care-taker treated those little children was deplorable. She must be punished for what she did.
A. respectable
B. unacceptable
C. mischievous
D. satisfactory
Question 16: My parent’ warnings didn’t deter me from choosing the job of my dreams.
A. influence
B. discourage
C. reassure
D. inspire
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 17:
A. quality
B. solution
C. compliment
D. energy
Question 18:
A. angry
B. complete
C. polite
D. secure
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store. I wanted to work part-time, because I was still studying at university and I was only able to work a few nights a week.
I came across the advertisement in the local newspaper. I remember the interview as though it were yesterday. The (19) ________ manager sat behind a large desk. He asked me various questions which surprised me because all I wanted was to work in sales. An hours later, I was told that I had got the job and was given a contract to go over. I was to be trained for ten days before I took my post. Also, as a member of staff, I was (20) ______ to some benefits, including discounts.
When I eventually started, I was responsible (21) _______ the toy section. I really enjoyed it there and I loved demonstrating the different toys. I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too. They made working there fun even when we had to deal with customers (22) ______ got on our nerves. (23) _______, working there was a great experience which I will never forget.
Question 19:
A. personal
B. personable
C. personage
D. personnel
Question 20:
A. catered
B. given
C. entitled
D. supplied
Question 21:
A. for
B. with
C. in
D. to
Question 22:
A. which
B. why
C. when
D. who
Question 23:
A. In contrast
B. However
C. Moreover
D. On the whole
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 24:
A. visits
B. destroys
C. believes
D. depends
Question 25:
A. floor
B. door
C. noodle
D. board
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
Question 26: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. doctors
B. ideas
C. professionals
D. companies
Question 27: The phrase “negative publicity” in paragraph 2 most likely means _______.
A. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones
B. information on the lethal effects of cellphones
C. the negative public use of cellphones
D. widespread opinion about bad effect of cellphones
Question 28: According to the passage, cellphones are very popular with young people because _______.
A. they make them look more stylish
B. they are worrying
C. they are a means of communication
D. they are considered unusual
Question 29: What could be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Technological Innovations and Their Price
B. The Way Mobile Phones Work
C. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time
D. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular
Question 30: The word “potentially” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _______.
A. possibly
B. privately
C. obviously
D. certainly
Đáp án đề thi Giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 2
1D |
2D |
3A |
4D |
5A |
6D |
7B |
8A |
9C |
10C |
11B |
12A |
13C |
14D |
15B |
16B |
17B |
18A |
19D |
20C |
21A |
22D |
23D |
24A |
25C |
26D |
27B |
28A |
29A |
30A |
----------------------------------------------------------
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2022 - 2023
Môn: Tiếng anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 3)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1: Hair color is one of ________characteristics to be used in identifying people
A. the most obvious
B. obviously the most
C. the most obviously
D. most obvious
Question 2: Alan and Susie _______ an argument. They are not speaking to each other.
A. might has
B. might had
C. must had
D. must have had
Question 3: There are five letters in the word “fresh”. One of the letters is a vowel. ________ are consonants.
A. The others
B. The other
C. Another
D. Others
Question 4: The conference was organized for all of the ________ in the state.
A. mathematics teachers
B. mathematics’ teachers
C. mathematic teachers
D. teachers of mathematic
Question 5: He drove through the town ________ a hundred miles an hour
A. with
B. ∅
C. in
D. at
Question 6: ________ little we may like it, old age comes to most of us
A. As
B. However
C. Despite
D. So
Question 7: She finds his behavior towards her quite ________. He treats her like an idiot.
A. offending
B. insulting
C. crude
D. ill- mannered
Question 8: - “Did you hear that Margaret's plan is snowbound in Chicago?” - “We suggested that she _____ a train but she wouldn’t listen.”
A. took
B. would take
C. had taken
D. take
Question 9: The bus was crammed ________ students who were making ________ the central park where the festival would take place.
A. with/for
B. with/into
C. in/for
D. of/out
Question 10: “Where’s that _______ dress that your grandma gave you?”
A. pink long lovely silk
B. lovely long pink silk
C. long pink silk lovely
D. lovely pink long silk
Question 11: I’m not keen on ________ control of the project to a relative newcomer
A. alloting
B. charging
C. understanding
D. entrusting
Question 12: The rain seems to have set ________ for the evening
A. about
B. upon
C. in
D. down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 13:
A. popular
B. reduction
C. financial
D. romantic
Question 14:
A. prospect
B. guidance
C. involve
D. future
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 15:
A. feminine
B. spine
C. undermine
D. Valentine
Question 16:
A. without
B. thank
C. although
D. these
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 17: Many people have found (A) the monotonous (B) buzzing of the vuvuzela in the 2010 - World Cup (C) matches so annoyed (D) .
Question 18: All nations may have to make (A) fundamental changes (B) in their economic, political, and the technological institutions (C) if they are to preserve (D) environment
Question 19:One of (A) the students who are being (B) considered for the (C) scholarship are (D) from this university
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - “Goodbye,Jane!” - “________.”
A. So long
B. Yeah
C. The same
D. So so
Question 21: - “My parents got divorced when I was 5.” - “________”
A .How did it happened
B. They shouldn’t do that.
C. Oh, I’m sorry.
D .You must have been shocked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Childbearing is the women's most wonderful role.
A. Giving birth to a baby
B. Bring up a child
C. Educating a child
D. Having no child
Question 23: In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew 25 years ago.
A. first-year students
B. new students
C. new counselors
D. young professors
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: I have lunch with a convivial group of my friend
A. large
B. unsociable
C. lively
D. cold
Question 25: I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work.
A. very scared
B. very bored
C. very idle
D. very busy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: Under no circumstances should you phone the police.
A. You should think hard before phoning the police
B. You should never phone the police.
C. You should phone the police as soon as possible.
D. If you can not control the situation, you should phone the police.
Question 27: He was suspended for two matches for swearing at the referee.
A. Swearing at the referee earned him a suspension for two matches.
B. If he hadn’t sworn at the referee he wouldn’t have been suspended for two matches.
C. He sworn at the referee for his suspension for two matches.
D. Both A and B are correct.
Question 28: The movie bears little resemblance to the original novel.
A. The movie and the original novel differ in some ways.
B. The movie is quite different from the original novel.
C. The movie is very similar to the original novel.
D. The movie and the original novel resemble in many ways.
Question 29: She didn’t want to sell her house. She borrowed a lot of money from the bank.
A. We sold her house, but she borrowed a lot of money from the bank.
B. Rather than selling her house, she borrowed a lot of money from the bank.
C. In spite of selling her house, she borrowed a lot of money from the bank.
D. She didn’t sell her house as she borrowed a lot of money from the bank.
Question 30: After Jane had seen her best friend off at the air port, she came back to work
A. Coming back to work, Jane had seen her best friend off at the air port.
B. Came back to work, Jane saw her best friend off at the air port.
C. Having seen her best friend off at the air port, Jane came back to work.
D. Seeing her best friend off at the air port, Jane came back to work.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
The British began to take trips to the seaside after the creation of bank holidays in 1871, Coastal towns such as Bournemouth and Blackpool enjoyed great popularity with families seeking the benefits of seawater bathing and (31)_____ air. However, when the airline industry started to offer low (32)_____flights to sunnier destinations in the 1970s, many British people started taking their holidays abroad. This resulted in a lack of investment into seaside resorts and before (33)_____many of them were no longer the attractive, lively places they once were. However, improved water quality, cleaner beaches and warmer British summers have all helped to attract people back to the British seaside. Also, many people are now preferring to take shorter (34)_____and don’t want to waste time queueing at airports. (35)_____ to say, facilities, attractions, and the quality of hotels and guesthouses in many resorts have improved dramatically
Question 31:
A. cool
B. fresh
C. natural
D. pure
Question 32:
A. expense
B. money
C. price
D. cost
Question 33:
A. soon
B. while
C. time
D. long
Question 34:
A. intervals
B. stops
C. breaks
D. pauses
Question 35:
A. Useless
B. Unnecessary
C. Needless
D. found
Đáp án đề thi Giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 3
1A |
2D |
3A |
4A |
5B |
6B |
7B |
8D |
9A |
10B |
11D |
12C |
13A |
14C |
15A |
16B |
17D |
18C |
19D |
20A |
21C |
22A |
23A |
24B |
25C |
26B |
27D |
28B |
29B |
30C |
31B |
32D |
33D |
34C |
35C |
----------------------------------------------------------
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2022 - 2023
Môn: Tiếng anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 4)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: It is such a prestigious university that only excellent students are entitled to a full scholarship each year.
A. have the right to refuse
B. are given the right to
C. are refused the right to
D. have the obligation to
Question 2: The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favorite films.
A. economics
B. businesses
C. contests
D. advertisements
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: In some societies, language is associated with social class and education. People judge one’s level in society by the kind of language used.
A. connected with
B. not allowed by
C. separated from
D. dissimilar to
Question 4: There was a ong period without rain in the countryside last year so the harvest was poor.
A. epidemic
B. drought
C. famine
D. flood
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 5:
A. matched
B. worked
C. cleaned
D. stepped
Question 6:
A. digestion
B. suggestion
C. question
D. perfection
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Question 7: He was so intelligent a student that he could pass the final exam easy.
A. was
B. so intelligent
C. could
D. easy
Question 8: Hadn’t you informed of the change in the timetable, I would have rushed to the office yesterday.
A. Hadn’t you
B. of
C. have
D. the
Question 9: I’d prefer to do it on myself because other people make me nervous.
A. I’d prefer
B. on mysel
C. other
D. make
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 10: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT
A. they are watchful and quiet
B. they sleep during the day
C. they dig home underground
D. they are noisy and aggressive
Question 11: We can infer from the passage that
A. healthy animals live longer lives
B. living things adjust to their environment
C. desert life is colorful and diverse
D. water is the basis of desert life
Question 12: According to the passage, creatures in the desert
A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
C. live in an accommodating environment
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
Question 13: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT
A. moist-skinned animals
B. many large animals
C. water-loving animals
D. the coyote and the bobcat
Question 14: The word “them” means
A. animals
B. minutes
C. people
D. water
Question 15: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means
A. wild
B. unmanageable
C. cunning
D. unhealthy
Question 16: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as
A. water is an essential part of his existence
B. very few large animals are found in the desert
C. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
D. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
Question 17: The title for this passage could be
A. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”
B. “Desert Plants”
C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment”
D. “Life Underground”
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 18:
A. ability
B. sympathetic
C. political
D. significant
Question 19:
A. postpone
B. specialize
C. purpose
D. summarize
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 20: He is coming _______a cold after a night out in the rain.
A. down with
B. across with
C. up with
D. away from
Question 21: New machinery has enhanced the company’s productivity and _______
A. competition
B. competitiveness
C. competitive
D. competitor
Question 22: In a formal interview, it is essential that the interviewee _____ good eye contact with the interviewers.
A. maintain
B. is maintained
C. must maintain
D. maintains
Question 23: The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it_____warmer.
A. had been
B. has been
C. were
D. was
Question 24: The recent heavy rains have helped to ease the water .
A. poverty
B. shortage
C. plenty
D. abundance
Question 25: As a(n) girl, she found it difficult to socialize with other students in the class.
A. industrious
B. dynamic
C. reserved
D. ashamed
Question 26: It is interesting to take ____ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.
A. over
B. up
C. in
D. on
Question 27: After the car crash last night, all the injuried ____ to the hospital in an ambulance.
A. were rushing
B. was rushing
C. was rushed
D. were rushed
Question 28: Working as a volunteer gives her a chance to develop her interpersonal skills, promote friendship, and _____ her own talent.
A. discovering
B. discover
C. discovered
D. to discover
Question 29: Scientists have ____ a lot of research into renewable energy sources.
A. carried
B. done
C. solved
D. made
Question 30: Before going to bed, he wanted some tea but there was left.
A. a few
B. no
C. nothing
D. any
Question 31: When Peter was a child, there______ a cinema near his house.
A. used to be
B. used to have been
C. used to have
D. used to be being
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 32: - Mary: “I will never go mountaineering again.” – Linda: “Me______.”
A. so
B. either
C. too
D. neither
Question 33: - Mary: “Thanks a lot for your help.” – John: “_________.”
A. My excitement
B. My delight
C. My happiness
D. My pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 34: “I was not there at the time” said he.
A. He denied that he was there at the time.
B. He denied that he wasn’t there at the time.
C. He denied being there at the time.
D. He denied not being there at the time.
Question 35: I’m sure Jessica was very upset when you left.
A. Jessica could have been very upset when you left.
B. Jessica must be very upset when you left.
C. Jessica may be very upset when you left.
D. Jessica must have been very upset when you left.
Đáp án đề thi Giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 4
1B |
2D |
3C |
4D |
5C |
6D |
7D |
8A |
9B |
10D |
11B |
12A |
13A |
14A |
15D |
16A |
17C |
18B |
19A |
20A |
21B |
22A |
23A |
24B |
25C |
26B |
27D |
28B |
29B |
30C |
31A |
32D |
33D |
34C |
35D |
------------------------------------------------------------
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2022 - 2023
Môn: Tiếng anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 5)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respone to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Ann: “Passing a university entrance exam is not difficult.” - John: “_____.”
A. I couldn’t agree more. It is not easy at all.
B. But I don’t. I failed it last year.
C. I do, too. I passed it last year.
D. You must be kidding. It’s not easy.
Question 2: Mary: “Our team has just won that English Competition.” - Anne: “_____”
A. Good ideas. Thanks for the news.
B. Well, that’s very surprising
C. Yes, I guess it’s very good
D. Yes, it’s our pleasure
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Facebook is a for-profit online social media and social networking service. The Facebook website was launched on February 4th, 2004 by Mark Zuckerberg, along with fellow Harvard College students and roommates. Since 2006, anyone age 13 and older has been allowed to become a registered user of Facebook though variations exist in minimum age requirement, depending on applicable local laws.
Over 25 million people in the Uk use Facebook. That’s 45% of population! And on average, each user spends over six hours a month on Facebook. Though not the highest this is a considerable number. Is Facebook is a dangerous obsession or just harmless fun? Seventeen- year-old Bethan has written on her blog about what it was like to stop using Facebook.
I think I am a Facebook addict. I log on to Facebook everyday to chat to my friends real friends and loads of online friends. Sometimes I have ten conversations going at the same time. I upload photos and update my Facebook profile all the time. But recently I’ve started to feel worried if I am offline for more than a few hours. And then last week I forgot to meet a real friend because I was online! I’ve realised I could have a problem. So I’ve decided to give it up for a while.
I found it really hard. Facebook and my friends demanded to know why I had left. I spent the first few evenings wondering what everyone was chatting on Facebook. I even phoned a couple of friends to find out.
The fourth night I wasn’t quite so bad. I actually concentrated on my homework better and I had more time to watch my TV programmes. And I spoke to my friends during the day at school. At the end of the first week, I reactivated my account, I think Facebook is fun and it’s useful for posting messages to friends and sharing photos. But I’ll try not to spend so much time on it in the future.
Question 3: Which of the following is NOT true about Facebook users in UK?
A. 45% of the country’s population used Facebook.
B. More than 25 millions of Brits use Facebook.
C. The amount of time British users spent on Facebook is highest.
D. Averagely, 6 hours per month are spent by British users.
Question 4: The highlight word “it” in the passage refers to_____.
A. worrying
B. facebook
C. a problem
D. meeting her real friend
Question 5: Facebook _______.
A. was non-profitable
B. was launched solely by Mark Zuckerberg.
C. follows each country’s regulation.
D. can be used by people of all ages.
Question 6: Which of the following is NOT the thing Bethan does as a Facebook addict?
A. be curious about Facebook activities when logging out.
B. have numerous online conversation at the same time.
C. use Facebook everyday
D. long to be offline nearly all the time.
Question 7: The word “applicable” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_____.
A. different
B. unsuitable
C. relevant
D. opposite
Question 8: What does Bethan conclude about Facebook?
A. The best use of Facebook is to share photos and messages.
B. Facebook is not as good as TV.
C. Users should spend more time on Facebook.
D. Facebook is great as long as not too much time is spent on.
Question 9: What happened to make Bethan decide to quit Facebook for a while?
A. She forgot an offline meeting.
B. She started to feel nervous.
C. She had too many offline friends.
D. She uploaded too many photos.
Question 10: When she decided to give up Facebook_____.
A. her friends didn’t care much
B. she found it too difficult to continue
C. she made progress after some days
D. she couldn’t focus on her homework
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 11:
A. physical
B. mischievous
C. romantic
D. suitable
Question 12:
A. contribute
B. accompany
C. volunteer
D. eliminate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer of each following questions.
Question 13: “You stole my best cassette, Bob.” said Willy.
A. Willy accused Bob on stealing his best cassette.
B. Willy accused Bob for stealing his best cassette.
C. Willy accused Bob at stealing his best cassette.
D. Willy accused Bob of stealing his best cassette.
Question 14: If you don’t have his number, you can’t phone him.
A. You can phone him unless you have his number.
B. You can’t phone him unless you have his number.
C. You can phone him unless you don’t have his number.
D. You can’t phone him unless you don’t have his number.
Question 15: There are many things I want for Christmas. Some are clothes, toys and money.
A. Clothes, toys and money are all the things I want for Christmas.
B. If there are clothes, toys and money, I want them for Christmas.
C. Although I want many things for Christmas, I have clothes, toys and money.
D. There are many things I want for Christmas, including clothes, toys and money.
Question 16: Tom and May never help at home. The reason is because their mother never asks to.
A. Tom and May never help at home and their mother never asks to.
B. Tom and May never help at home because their mother never asks to.
C. Tom and May never help at home so their mother never asks to
D. In order not to help at home by Tom and May, their mother never asks.
Question 17: Mr Pike is repairing the refrigerator in the kitchen at the moment.
A. The refrigerator is being repaired in the kitchen at the moment by Mr Pike.
B. The refrigerator is repaired in the kitchen by Mr Pike at the moment.
C. The refrigerator is being repaired in the kitchen by Mr Pike at the moment.
D. The refrigerator is being repaired at the moment by Mr Pike in the kitchen.
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions:
Question 18:
A. return
B. human
C. university
D. future
Question 19:
A. looked
B. stopped
C. closed
D. watched
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions:
Question 20: A lot of rice were exported to France last year.
A. were
B. to
C. A lot of
D. exported
Question 21: If you think carefully before making your decision, you will avoid to get into trouble later.
A. to get
B. later
C. carefully
D. making
Question 22: The books writing by Mark Twain are very popular in the world.
A. very
B. by
C. in
D. writing
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following.
Question 23: The teacher gave some suggestions on what would come out for the examination.
A. symptoms
B. demonstrations
C. effects
D. hints
Question 24: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. relate on
B. be interested in
C. impress on
D. pay attention to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduce our motivation to work.
A. calm
B. uncomfortable
C. miserable
D. responsive
Question 26: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at annual meeting in May.
A. encouragement
B. rudeness
C. measurement
D. politeness
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Most educational specialists believe that early schooling should provide children with an (27)_____ of their own abilities and the self-confidence to use their abilities. One approach recognised by many (28)______ as promoting these qualities is the Montessori method, first practised by Maria Montessori of Italy in the early 1900s. Nancy McCormick Rambusch is credited with (29) ______ the method in the United States, where today there are over 400 Montessori schools.The method helps children learn for themselves by (30) ______ them with instructional materials and tasks that facilitate acts of discovery and manipulation. Through such exploration, children develop their sense of touch and learn (31)______ to do everyday tasks without adult assistance. Other benefits include improvement in language skills, and acquaintance with elements of science, music, and art.
Question 27:
A. awareness
B. attitude
C. attention
D. knowledge
Question 28:
A. researcher
B. teacher
C. tutors
D. experts
Question 29:
A. popular
B. popularity
C. popularize
D. popularizing
Question 30:
A. giving
B. instructing
C. sending
D. providing
Question 31:
A. how
B. what
C. that
D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal. But a group of scientists has heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn to them like vulture to a dying animal. Researchers with the US Department of Agriculture’s Forest Service fastened sensors to the bark of drought-stricken trees clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists, most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50-hertz to 50kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect no more than 20 kilohertz). Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make slightly different sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface of the wood.The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the water columns inside tubes that run along the length of the tree break, a result of too little water following through themThese fractured columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees' vibration and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water-stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and they experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to something other than sound”, one scientist said.
Question 32: All the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees EXCEPT______.
A. thermal changes
B. sounds
C. changes in color
D. smells
Question 33: It can be inferred from the passage that research concerning the distress signals of trees______.
A. has been unproductive up to now
B. is no longer sponsored by the government
C. was conducted many years ago
D. is continuing
Question 34: Which of the following could be considered a cause of the distress signals of trees?
A. attacks by insects
B. experiments by scientists
C. torn roots
D. lack of water
Question 35: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. The effect of insects on trees.
B. The vibrations produced by insects.
C. The mission of the U.S Forest Service.
D. The sounds made by trees.
Đáp án đề thi Giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 5
1D |
2B |
3C |
4B |
5C |
6D |
7C |
8D |
9A |
10C |
11C |
12C |
13D |
14B |
15D |
16B |
17C |
18A |
19C |
20A |
21A |
22D |
23D |
24D |
25A |
26D |
27A |
28D |
29D |
30D |
31A |
32C |
33D |
34D |
35D |
------------------------------------------------------------
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2022 - 2023
Môn: Tiếng anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 6)
I. Choose the option which has OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined word(s).
1. We'd better speed up if we want to get to the concert in time
A. put down
B. lie down
C. slow down
D. turn down
2. Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.
A. fluctuate
B. restrain
C. stay unchanged
D. remain unstable
II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Many people believe that watching television has resulted in lower reading standards in schools. However, the link between television and printed books is not as simple as that. In many cases, television actually encourages people to read for example, when a book is turned into a TV series, its sales often go up.
One study of this link examined six-year-old children who were viewing a special series of 15-minute programmes at school. The series was designed to encourage the love of books, as well as to develop the basic mechanical skills of reading. Each programme is an animated film of a children's book. The story is read aloud while certain key phrases from the book appear on the screen, beneath the picture. Whenever a word is read, it is also highlighted on the TV screen.
One finding was that watching these programmes was very important to the children. If anything prevented them from seeing a programme, they were very disappointed. What's more, they wanted to read the books which the different parts of the series were based on.
The programmes also gave the children more confidence when looking these books. As a result of their familiarity with the stories, they would sit in pairs and read the stories aloud to each other. On each occasion, the children showed great sympathy when discussing a character in a book because they themselves had been moved when watching the character on TV.
3. What is the main idea of the book?
A. The simple link between television and books.
B. The ways of children reading books and watching TV.
C. The advantage of books over television.
D. The influence of television on reading books.
4. When does television encourage people to read ?
A. When children are watching an animated film on TV.
B. When a book is made into a TV series.
C. When there are no interesting programs on TV.
D. When a book appears on the screen.
5. How did children feel when viewing a special series of 15-minute program at school?
A. They felt bored.
B. They felt confident.
C. They felt disappointed.
D. They felt excited.
6. What kind of film is each program?
A. An educational film.
B. A story film of a children's book.
C. An animated film of a children's book.
D. A documentary film of children's life.
7. What advantage did children have from this program?
A. They became more sympathetic.
B. They made more friends.
C. They read books with more interest and confidence.
D. They became more interested in watching TV.
III. Read the passage and choose correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
BOOKS
Nearly all the discoveries that have been (8)_______ through the ages can be found in books. The invention of the book is one of humankind's (9)_______ achievements, the importance of (10)_______ cannot be overestimated. Books are very adaptable, (11)_______ us with both entertainment and information. The production of books (12)_______ in Ancient Egypt, though not in a form that is recognised to us today. The books read by the Romans, however, have some similarities to the ones we read now. Until the middle of the 15th century, in Europe, all books were written by hand. They were often beautifully illustrated and always rare and expensive. With printing came the possibility of cheap, larze-scale publication and distribution of books, making knowledge more widespread and accessible.
8.
A. done
B. made
C. achieved
D. attained
9.
A. giant
B. greatest
C. huge
D. largest
10.
A. that
B. who's
C. whose
D. which
11.
A. giving
B. meeting
C. offering
D. providing
12.
A. began
B. set
C. arose
D. carried out
IV. Choose the option whose underlined part is pronounced differently.
13.
A. threatened
B. endangered
C. advanced
D. recovered
14.
A. human
B. survive
C. introduce
D. attitude
V. Choose the option that has the CLOSEST meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
15. In 1989, a ban was given on all international trade in ivory.
A. prohibition
B. contamination
C. action
D. destruction
16. Life on Earth is disappearing fast and will continue to do so unless urgent action is taken.
A. vanishing
B. polluting
C. destroying
D. damaging
VI. Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentence.
17. Susan ___ hear the speaker because the crowd was cheering so loudly.
A. couldn't
B. needn't
C. mustn't
D. can't
18. My children ________ interested in kangaroos lately.
A. become
B. will become
C. have become
D. were becoming
19. I've warned you many times ______the front door unlocked.
A. not leaving
B. don't leave
C. won't leave
D. not to leave
20. Chemical wastes from factories are _______ that cause serious damage to species habitats.
A. polluters
B. pollutants
C. pollutions
D. pollutes
21. Not many people find reading more ____ than watching TV.
A. interesting
B. interestingly
C. interested
D. interest
22. People enjoy a book ________ different ways.
A. on
B. in
C. with
D. upon
23. Internationally, 189 countries have signed _______ accord agreeing to create Biodiversity Action Plans to protect endangered and other threatened species.
A. Ø
B. a
C. the
D. an
24. The world's biodiversity is declining at an unprecedented rate, which makes wildlife _______
A. prosperous
B. vulnerable
C. remained
D. prefect
25. When a reader reads an interesting book slowly and carefully, he ____ it
A. chews and digests
B. reviews
C. dips into
D. swallows
26. I have nearly finished reading the book. There are only a few ______ left.
A. slices
B. pages
C. sheets
D. pieces
27. _______ is the protection of environment and natural resources.
A. Extinction
B. Survival
C. Conservation
D. Commerce
28. The house has______ after the fire.
A. to be rebuilt
B. rebuild
C. rebuilt
D. be to rebuilt
29. This book ________ to Peter. It is not mine.
A. owns
B. belongs
C. possesses
D. has
30. Pat: "Would you like something to eat?" -Kathy: "______. I'm not hungry now."
A. No, thanks
B. No, no problem
C. Yes, it is
D. Yes, I would
31. Laura: "What a lovely house you have!" Mary: "………………."
A. Thanks. I think so.
B. No problem .
C. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
D. Of course not, It's not costly
VII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.
32. One ofthe best (A)ways to encourage your childrento read (B)are (C)to provide interesting titlesfor (D)them to enjoy.
33. Disease, pollute (A), and limited distribution are (B) factors (C) that threaten (D) various plant and animal species.
34. The boy which (A) was given first prize in (B) the contest was (C) very happy (D).
35. In 2030 (A), how we will provide (B) for the food, land, and energy needs (C) of a global population of over 8 billion (D)?
VIII. Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions/ sentences.
36. If I were you, I would take the train instead of the bus.
A. I advise you to take the bus.
B. You should take the train instead of the bus
C. You should have taken the train instead of the bus.
D. You must have taken the train instead of the bus.
37. I started working here in 2000.
A. I have started work here since 2000.
B. I have started working here since 2000.
C. I haven't worked here since 2000.
D. I have worked here since 2000.
38. "Why don't we go out for dinner tonight?" said Jim.
A. Jim denied going out for dinner that night.
B. Jim promised to go out for dinner that night.
C. Jim suggested going out for dinner that night.
D. Jim refused to go out for dinner that night.
IX. Choose the option that has different stress position from the others.
39.
A. development
B. ability
C. agriculture
D. contaminate
40.
A. government
B. benefit
C. agency
D. diversity
ĐÁP ÁN đề thi Giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 6
01. C; 02. C; 03. D; 04. B; 05. D;
06. C; 07. C; 08. B; 09. B; 10. D;
11. D; 12. A; 13. C; 14. B; 15. A;
16. A; 17. A; 18. C; 19. D; 20. B;
21. A; 22. B; 23. D; 24. B; 25. A;
26. B; 27. C; 28. A; 29. B; 30. A;
31. C; 32. C; 33. A; 34. A; 35. B;
36. B; 37. D; 38. C; 39. C; 40. D;
------------------------------------------------------------
Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2022 - 2023
Môn: Tiếng anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 7)
SECTION A: (8.5 points)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:
1.
A. thick
B. thus
C. south
D. thought
2.
A. caused
B. increased
C. practised
D. promised
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
3.
A. Asian
B. position
C. resort
D. competitor
4.
A. milkmaid
B. intensive
C. scoreboard
D. penalty
Choose the best option (A, B, C or D).
5. - “Jane doesn’t seem to be interested in learning to swim.”- “You’re right. Betty is the __________ of the two.”
A. most enthusiastic
B. more enthusiastic
C. enthusiastic
D. enthusiastic than
6. Tropical fruits _______ durians, mangosteens and rambutans are exported all over the world.
A. as
B. example
C. like
D. such
7. My brother passed his final exams thanks to encouragements from my family.
A. praise
B. confidence
C. assurance
D. supports
8. The 22nd SEA Games _______ a good impression on sports enthusiasts.
A. did
B. caused
C. gained
D. made
9. You look __________ you haven’t slept.
A. while
B. because
C. as
D. as if
10. I must ask my parents __________ permission before I can go with you.
A. about
B. for
C. on
D. of
11. This man __________ all his life to science.
A. appealed
B. dedicated
C. preserved
D. proposed
12. An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of Red Cross.
A. was the result of
B. influenced
C. led to
D. was brought about
13. We _______ for some hours before we _______ that we had lost our way.
A. were walking / realized.
B. walked / had realized.
C. had been walking / realized
D. had been walked / realized
14. __________ we move into the new house, we will have a party.
A. During the time
B. While
C. As soon as
D. Until
15. People are watching the __________ of gymnastics competitors.
A. perform
B. performance
C. performer
D. performing
16. John passed his exam with a distinction. __________.
A. He was too lazy to succeed
B. He must study very hard
C. He must have studied very hard
D. He needs studying harder
17. John still feels like a cigarette though he gave __________ smoking a few years ago.
A. in
B. up
C. over
D. on
18. Remember to __________ your shoes when you come to a Japanese house.
A. take after
B. put in
C. take off
D. put on
19. Peter- “Jane, it’s too dark in here.”
Mary- “Well, what can I do for you?”
Peter- “ __________.”
A. Can you turn off the light?
B. Oh, I can’t
C. Can you help me?
D. Turn on the light, please.
20. Jack- “Your cousin is very beautiful, Paul.”
Jerry- “Of course. __________. Her mother used to win a beauty contest in her city.”
A. She takes in her mother
B. Her mother looks after her.
C. She takes after her mother
D. She names after her mother.
21. Jason - “My brother’s coughed a lot recently.”
Peter- “Does he smoke?”
Jason- “Yes, a lot.”
Peter- “__________?”
Jason- “Well, it’s a good idea. I’ll tell him about that.”
A. Why doesn’t he give up smoking?”
B. Why does he stop smoking?
C. He shouldn’t go on coughing.
D. He shouldn’t give up smoking.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
22. Modern farms are much larger than that of former times.
A. Modern
B. much
C. that
D. times
23. Bob only goes to bed before he has finished all his homework.
A. goes
B. before
C. has finished
D. homework
24. When she came in from the rainstorm, she looked as though she took a shower with her clothes on.
A. When
B. from
C. looked
D. took
Read the passage and fill in each blank with a suitable word
The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency with national affiliates in almost every country in the world. The Red Cross movement began with the founding of the International Committee for the Relief of (25)______ Wounded in 1863 (now the International Committee of the Red Cross); it was (26)______ to care for victims of battle (27)______ wartime, but later national Red Cross societies were created to aid in the prevention and relief of human suffering generally. Its peacetime activities include first aid, accident prevention, water (28)______, training of nurses' aids, maintenance of maternal and child welfare centers and medical clinics, blood banks, and numerous (29)______ services. The Red Cross is the name used in countries under nominally Christian sponsorship; the Red Crescent (adopted on the insistence of the Ottoman Empire in 1906) is the name used in Muslim countries.
25.
A. the
B. an
C. one
D. a
26.
A. set
B. established
C. done
D. found
27.
A. on
B. before
C. in
D. to
28.
A. safety
B. safe
C. safer
D. safely
29.
A. other
B. another
C. the other
D. others
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions below:
Women in Britain are better off today than they used to be. At the beginning of the 19th century, women seem to have almost no rights at all. They could not vote, or even sign a contract. Their marriages were arranged by their parents. They were once kept at home and if they were allowed to work, they were never given responsible jobs. It is strange to think that, as far as we know, most women were happy with that situation.
Today the position is quite different. Women now can vote and choose their own husbands. In 1970, a law was passed to give them an equal share of property in the case of divorce, and in the same year the Equal Pay Act gave them the right to get equal payment with men for work of equal value.
Despite these changes, there is no doubt that there are still great differences in status between men and women. Many employers seem to ignore the Equal Pay Act. It is also more difficult for a woman to get promotion than a man does.
There is sex distinction in England although it has not been so serious as it was. More and more women go out to work, earn more money, get high positions in the society, and live independently. However , there are two great problems to solve. The first problem is men's attitude. They always think that women are lower in rank and are the weaker sex. We do not know exactly how long it will take them to change their mind. And the other problem which is much more difficult is women's attitude. They should be ready to struggle to change their fate.
30. At the beginning of the 19th century ,___________.
A. British women were better off than today.
B. Women seemed to have almost no rights at all.
C. British women had the right to vote.
D. British women had the right to choose their husbands.
31. The Equal Pay Act was passed in ___________.
A. 1960
B. 1962
C. 1970
D. 1971
32. Which of these following sentences is NOT TRUE?
A. All the employers in Britain obey the Equal Pay Act.
B. In 1970, a law was passed to give British women the right to share property equally in the case of divorce.
C. The Equal Pay Act gave British women the right to get equal payment with men for work of equal value.
D. Women cannot get promotion as equal as men.
33. What is men's attitude?
A. They consider women to be equal to them.
B. They always look down upon women.
C. They consider women the stronger sex.
D. They consider women the weaker sex.
34. What should women do to eliminate sex distinction?
A. They should suffer with pleasure.
B. They should struggle to change their fate.
C. They should earn more money.
D. All are correct
SECTION B: (1.5 points)
Rewrite the following sentences without changing their original meaning. Begin with the given words:
35. I can’t swim as well as my mother can.
My mother ___________________________________________.
36. How many countries participated in the last Olympic Games? (Use “take part in” to rewrite the sentence)
How many ___________________________________________.
37. Lisa is the best daughter in my family.
Nobody ___________________________________________.
38. A new car is more expensive than an old one.
An old car ___________________________________________.
39. I feel miserable when it is hot.
The hotter ___________________________________________.
40. Nobody in my class is more beautiful than Maria.
Maria ___________________________________________.
Đáp án đề thi Giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 7
1.B 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.B 6.C 7.D 8.D 9.D 10.B |
11.B 12.C 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.C 17.B 18.C 19.D 20.C |
21.A 22.C 23.B 24.D 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. A 30.B |
31.C 32.A 33.D 34.B
|
35. My mother can swim better than I can/ me.
36. How many countries took part in the last Olympic Games?
37. Nobody in my family is better than Lisa.
38. An old car isn’t as/so expensive as a new one.
39. The hotter it is, the more miserable I feel.
40. Maria is the most beautiful girl in my class.
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Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2022 - 2023
Môn: Tiếng anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 8)
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.
Question 1: Nobody can prevent us from ______ good things.
A. doing
B. do
C. done
D. did
Question 2: The ______ of the moon for the Earth cause tides.
A. attract
B. attractive
C. attraction
D. attracted
Question 3: We arrived on time ________ the traffic was bad.
A. despite
B. in spite of
C. even
D. although
Question 4: You must always remember ______ your car locked.
A. keeping
B. kept
C. keep
D. to keep
Question 5: Several toxic gases are very ________ to our health.
A. harmful
B. good
C. useful
D. careful
Question 6: If you _______ less last night, you ______ so bad today.
A. would have drunk – would not feel
B. had drunk – would not have felt
C. drank – would not feel
D. had drunk – would not feel
Question 7: By the end of next month, we ________ our English course.
A. have completed
B. completed
C. will have completed
D. will be completed
Question 8: I like living here _____ it’s near the shops.
A. but
B. so
C. and
D. because
Question 9: Coal and oil are _______.
A. minerals
B. gasolines
C. marines
D. mentals
Question 10: If you had worked harder, you ________.
A. would have been sacked
B. will not be sacked
C. would not have been sacked
D. are not sacked
Question 11: Mr. Pike ______ teaches you English is living in Manchester.
A. who
B. whose
C. whom
D. what
Question 12: When Tet Holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to ________ their houses.
A. do over
B. do in
C. do through
D. do up
Question 13: It was _______ we could not go out.
A. too cold that
B. very so cold
C. so cold that
D. such cold that
Question 14: After ________ high school, Nam attended a university in the city center.
A. to finish
B. having been finished
C. to have finished
D. having finished
Mark the letter A, B, C or D n your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 15: - Tom: “How are you feeling today?” - Mary: “_________.”
A. I’m sorry
B. Thank you
C. Not too bad
D. Yes
Question 16: - John: “Could I use your dictionary?” – Daisy: “_________.”
A. Sure. That’s a good idea
B. Yes, of course
C. I’m sorry to hear that
D. Yes, you do
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 17: There are also many single mothers and single fathers which are raising children by themselves.
A. are
B. many
C. which
D. by
Question 18: In spite of my father is old , he still goes to work .
A. In spite of
B. old
C. goes
D. work
Question 19: He is believed be the best player in our team.
A. is believed
B. be
C. best
D. in
Question 20: The result of that test must be inform before August.
A. result
B. must be
C. inform
D. before
Question 21: Many people have complain about the dirty smoke from the factory.
A. Many
B. complain
C. dirty
D. from
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.
Question 22:
A. decree
B. atmosphere
C. discard
D. disposal
Question 23:
A. Russian
B. property
C. lecture
D. necessity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word of phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question.
Question 24: You shouldn’t wear casual clothes to an interview.
A. formal
B. untidy
C. informal
D. elegant
Question 25: Remember to bring letters of recommendation from your teachers.
A. suggestion
B. introduction
C. advice
D. reference
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underline is pronounced differently from the rest.
Question 26:
A. escape
B. slave
C. hat
D. gave
Question 27:
A. lemon
B. lend
C. legal
D. leg
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word of phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question.
Question 28: In most countries, compulsory military service doesn’t apply to women.
A. mandatory
B. essential
C. optional
D. required
Question 29: During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.
A. holding to
B. holding at
C. holding back
D. holding by
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors.
Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one.
Question 30: The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to __________
A. indicate that the answers are not really important.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 31: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. answers
B. questions
C. features
D. jobs
Question 32: The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _______.
A. measuring
B. disposing
C. discovering
D. considering
Question 33: According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city?
A. advertising
B. retail sales
C. law
D. plumbing
Question 34: In paragraph 5, the author suggests that ____________
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
C. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
Question 35: Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?
A. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.
B. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
C. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
D. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.
Đáp án đề thi Giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 8
1A | 2C | 3D | 4D | 5A |
6D | 7C | 8D | 9A | 10C |
11A | 12A | 13C | 14D | 15C |
16B | 17C | 18A | 19B | 20C |
21B | 22B | 23D | 24C | 25A |
26C | 27C | 28C | 29C | 30C |
31D | 32D | 33A | 34A | 35A |
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Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2022 - 2023
Môn: Tiếng anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 9)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1.
A. resort
B. season
C. excursion
D. reasonable
2.
A. hacker
B. automated
C. application
D. navigate
3.
A. endangered
B. destroyed
C. damaged
D. provided
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
4.
A. prioritise
B. energetic
C. communicate
D. responsible
5.
A. business
B. intention
C. endangered
D. extinction
6.
A. observatory
B. historical
C. activity
D. vulnerable
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
7. By the time you finish cooking they ____ their homework.
A. will have done
B. are doing
C. have been doing
D. have done
8. Illegal hunting in Namibia, Zimbabwe, and Botswana, puts African elephants ____ of extinction.
A. in the verge
B. on the verge
C. on brink
D. in brink
9. ____ we finish the project, ____ we can start the next one.
A. The soonest/ the sooner
B. The sooner/ the most soon
C. The sooner/ the sooner
D. The soonest/ the soonest
10. Current extinction rates are at least 100 to 1,000 times higher than ____ rates found in the fossil record.
A. nature
B. natural
C. naturally
D. naturalness
11. Do you have a newspaper ____ to your home?
A. deliver
B. delivered
C. to deliver
D. delivering
12. Robots can act as 24/7 ____ to children with disabilities or the elderly.
A. equipment
B. devices
C. aids
D. contribution
13. The students got the librarian ____ books for them.
A. buy
B. buying
C. bought
D. to buy
14. Intelligent robots carry out many different tasks such as ____ delivery in a factory, pipe inspection, and exploration of dangerous environments.
A. independent
B. automatic
C. automating
D. automated
15. A CV is a concise document which summarizes your past existing professional skills, proficiency and ____.
A. experience
B. qualifications
C. reputations
D. feelings
16. Could you please tell me ____?
A. It is how far to the nearest bus stop
B. how far is it to the nearest bus stop
C. how far to the nearest bus stop is it
D. how far it is to the nearest bus stop
17. She was ____ after three years with the company.
A. promoted
B. risen
C. elevating
D. advanced
18. She may claim ____ a PhD but nobody's ever actually seen the certificate.
A. having
B. to have
C. for having
D. if she has
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
19. We were disappointed when the receptionist tells that the hotel was fully booked that week.
A. were disappointed
B. tells
C. fully booked
D. that week
20. The warmer the weather get around the world, the faster the polar ice caps will melt.
A. The warmer
B. get around the world
C. the faster
D. will melt
21. According to the futurist Ray Kurzweil, humans could have tiny computerized machines or nanobots invent thanks to future medical advances.
A. could
B. computerized
C. invent
D. thanks to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
22. A.I. algorithms can also help to detect faces and other features in photo sent to social networking sites and automatically organize them.
A. categorize
B. connect
C. recognize
D. remind
23. She's doing well so she was promoted last year. Now she's in charge of a small team of four people.
A. controls
B. supervises
C. takes over
D. rules
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
24. To become a librarian, you need to be really well-organized.
A. in order
B. neat and tidy
C. compassionate
D. messy
25. Most, not to say all of the employers want to look for candidates with punctuality, so make sure you make a positive impression on them by showing up on time for the interview.
A. good time management
B. ability to meet deadlines
C. being late
D. being in time
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near future because they have been (26) ____ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii's plants are found nowhere else in the world but they are threatened by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents and non- (27) ____ plants.
The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to prevent the extinction of the 182 rare Hawaiian plants with fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the wild. Since 1990, (28) ____ a result of their ‘Plant Extinction Prevention Program’, sixteen species have been brought into cultivation and three species have been reintroduced. Invasive weeds have been removed in key areas and fencing put up in order to (29) ____ plants in the wild.
In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims (30) ____ collecting genetic material from the remaining plants in the wild for storage as a safety net for the future. They also aim to manage wild populations and where possible reintroduce species into reserves.
26.
A. disappeared
B. reduced
C. increased
D. developed
27.
A. nation
B. native
C. national
D. nationally
28.
A. so
B. due
C. as
D. but
29.
A. derive
B. vary
C. remain
D. protect
30.
A. at
B. for
C. with
D. on
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
SCIENCE FLYING IN THE FACE OF GRAVITY
It looked just like another aircraft from the outside. The pilot told his young passengers that it was built in 1964, a Boeing KC-135 refueling tanker, based on the 707. But appearances were deceptive, and the 13 students from Europe and the USA who boarded the aircraft were in for the flight of their lives.
Inside, the area that normally had seats had become a long white tunnel. Heavily padded from floor to ceiling; it looked a bit like a lunatic asylum. There were almost no windows, but lights along the padded walls eerily illuminated it. Most of the seats had been taken out apart from a few at the back, where the young scientists quickly took their places with a look of apprehension.
From 12 months, science students from across the continents had competed to win a place on the flight at the invitation of the European Space Agency. The challenge had been to suggest imaginative experiments to be conducted in weightless conditions. For the next two hours the Boeing's flight resembled that of an enormous bird which had lost its reason, shooting upwards towards the heavens before hurting towards Earth. The intention was to achieve weightlessness for a few seconds.
The aircraft took off smoothly enough, but any feelings that I and the young scientists had that we were on anything like a scheduled passenger service were quickly dismissed when the pilot put the plane into a 45-degree climb which lasted around 20 seconds. Then the engine cut out and we became weightless. Everything became confused, and left or right, up or down no longer had any meaning. After 10 seconds of free-fall descent, the pilot pulled the aircraft out of its nosedive. The return of gravity was less immediate than its loss, but was still sudden enough to ensure that some students came down with a bump. After two hours of going up and down in the plane doing experiments, the predominant feeling was one of exhilaration rather than nausea. Most of the students thought it was an unforgettable experience and one they would be keen to repeat.
31. What does the writer say about the plane?
A. It had no seats.
B. It had no windows.
C. The inside was painted white.
D. The outside was misleading.
32. What does the word eerily in paragraph 2 mean?
A. badly
B. brightly
C. clearly
D. strangely
33. What did the pilot do with the plane?
A. He climbed and made the plane turn over.
B. He climbed and made the plane fall slowly.
C. He quickly climbed and stopped the engines.
D. He took off normally and then cut the engines for 20 seconds.
34. What does the word it in the last paragraph refer to?
A. the exhilaration
B. the opportunity
C. the plane
D. the trip
35. Why was this passage written?
A. To encourage young people to take up science.
B. To describe the outcome of a scientific competition.
C. To report on a new scientific technique.
D. To show scientists what young people can do.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
36. Why don't we get someone to fix our computer?
A. Fixing our computer is someone else's duty.
B. Let's have someone to fix our computer.
C. Someone will have our computer fixed.
D. Why don't we have our computer fixed?
37. The more polluted the environment is, the less safe it becomes for the animals.
A. If the environment is more polluted, it becomes better for the animals.
B. Animals find the more polluted environment safer.
C. Animals become less safe with a more polluted environment.
D. Animals become safer with a more polluted environment.
38. As he gets older, he wants to travel less.
A. The older he gets, the less he wants to travel.
B. The more elderly he gets, the more he wants to travel.
C. The older he gets, he wants to travel the less.
D. The older he gets, the little places he wants to travel.
39. “I would like a cup of coffee, please,” Ms. Smith said to the waitress.
A. Ms. Smith ordered the waitress to bring her a cup of coffee.
B. Ms. Smith invited the waitress a cup of coffee.
C. Ms. Smith advised the waitress to drink a cup of coffee.
D. Ms. Smith warned the waitress not to drink coffee.
40. The secretary said, “Sorry, I will never work on Sunday.”
A. The secretary promised not to work on Sunday.
B. The secretary refused not to work on Sunday.
C. The secretary reminded her boss to work on Sunday.
D. The secretary refused to work on Sunday.
Đáp án đề thi Giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 9
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. B
11. B
12. C
13. D
14. D
15. A
16. D
17. A
18. B
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. C
23. B
24. D
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. D
30. A
31. D
32. D
33. C
34. D
35. B
36. D
37. C
38. A
39. A
40. D
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Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....
Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa Học kì 2
Năm học 2022 - 2023
Môn: Tiếng anh 12
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
Đề thi Giữa học kì 2 Tiếng anh lớp 12 có đáp án - (Đề số 10)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1:
A. needed
B. stopped
C. provided
D. naked
Question 2:
A. pleasure
B. television
C. preserve
D. decision
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3:
A. attract
B. connect
C. demand
D. marry
Question 4:
A. observation
B. intelligence
C. development
D. activity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: A new school with more than (A) 50 classrooms have (B) just been built (C) in our local (D) area.
Question 6: The doctor advised him (A) to avoid eating (B) fatty foods, having (C) more fresh vegetables and drink much(D)water.
Question 7: The student must have (A) her assessment form fill in (B) by the examiner during (C) the oral exam (D).
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: No matter how angry he was, he would never ______ to violence.
A. refuse
B. resist
C. resolve
D. resort
Question 9: . It was no accident that he broke my glasses. He did it _______ purpose.
A. with
B. on
C. by
D. about
Question 10: They live on a busy road. ______ a lot of noise from traffic.
A. It must be
B. There must be
C. There must have
D. It must have been
Question 11: She passed the National High School Graduation Exam with ____ colours.
A. red
B. true
C. bright
D. flying
Question 12: He is a very intelligent boy; ______, he sometimes gets bad marks.
A. otherwise
B. so
C. however
D. thus
Question 13: I _____ with my aunt when I am on holiday in Ho Chi Minh City next month.
A. will be staying
B. will have stayed
C. will have been staying
D. stay
Question 14: I can’t find my dictionary at the moment. I hope it will ______ up soon.
A. clear
B. look.
C. come.
D. turn.
Question 15: She started the course two months ago but dropped _____ after only a month
A. out
B. back.
C. off
D. in
Question 16: ______ that Columbus discovered America.
A. In 1492
B. That was in 1492
C. There was in 1492
D. It was in 1492
Question 17: The use of vitamin ______ and herbs has become increasingly popular among Americans.
A. ingredients.
B. materials.
C. components
D. supplements.
Question 18: Due to ever more spreading poaching, there ______ a dramatic decline in the number of elephants recently.
A. is
B. had been
C. was
D. has been
Question 19: ______ make a good impression on her.
A. Only by doing so can I.
B. Only so doing can I.
C. Only by doing so I can.
D. Only by so doing I can.
Question 20: Lora: “Do you mind if I turn on the fan?” – Maria: “______.”
A. Never mind.
B. Not at all
C. Not for me
D. Not enough.
Question 21: Tom: “Can I have another cup of tea?” – Christy: “_____.”
A. Allow yourself
B. Do it yourself
C. Help yourself
D. Be yourself
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice.
A. being considerate of things
B. remembering to do right things
C. forgetful of one’s past
D. often forgetting things
Question 23: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. Informative
B. delighted
C. exciting
D. essential
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.
A. interested
B. dissatisfied
C. excited
D. shocked
Question 25: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. gently
B. cleverly
C. reasonably
D. brutally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: John said, “You’d better not lend them any money, Daisy.”
A. John asked Daisy if she had lent them any money.
B. John commanded Daisy not to lend them any money.
C. John advised Daisy not to lend them any money.
D. John ordered Daisy not to lend them any money.
Question 27: “Get out of my car or I’ll call the police!” Jane shouted to the strange man.
A. Jane politely told the man she would call the police if he didn’t leave her car.
B. Jane plainly said that she would call the police.
C. Jane threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her car.
D. Jane informed the strange man that she would call the police.
Question 28: It was only when I left home that I realized how much my family meant to me.
A. As soon as I left home, I found out what a family could do without.
B. I left home and didn’t realize how meaningful my family was.
C. Not until I left home did I realize how much my family meant to me.
D. Before I left home, I realized how much my family meant to me.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn‘t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‘t pass it.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.
Question 30: They're my two sisters. They aren't teachers like me.
A. They're my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
B. They're my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me.
C. Like me, neither of my two sisters aren't teachers.
D. They're my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
You may have heard that tomatoes and processed tomato product like tomato sauce and canned tomatoes protect (31)______ some types of cancer. The cancer-preventing properties of tomato products have been (32)______ to lycopene. It is a bright red pigment found in tomatoes and other red fruits and is the cause of their red color. Unlike other fruits and vegetables, where nutritional content such as vitamin C is diminished upon cooking, processing of tomatoes increases the concentration of lycopene. Lycopene in tomato paste is four times (33)______ in fresh tomatoes. This is because lycopene is insoluble in water and is tightly bound to vegetable fiber. Thus, (34)______ tomato products such as pasteurized tomato juice, so up, sauce, and ketchup contain the highest concentrations of lycopene. Cooking and crushing tomatoes as in the canning process and serving in oil-rich dishes such as spaghetti sauce or pizza (35)______ increase assimilation from the digestive tract into the bloodstream. Lycopene is a fat-soluble substance, so the oil is said to help absorption to a great extent.
Question 31:
A. out
B. off
C. against
D. away
Question 32:
A. pressed
B. responsible
C. attributed
D. original
Question 33:
A. much moreB
B. as much as
C. as many as
D. further than
Question 34:
A. fresh
B. processed
C. contained
D. raw
Question 35:
A. largely
B. chiefly
C. mainly
D. greatly
Đáp án đề thi Giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng anh 12 - Đề số 10
1B | 2C | 3D | 4A | 5B |
6C | 7B | 8D | 9B | 10B |
11D | 12C | 13A | 14D | 15A |
16D | 17D | 18D | 19A | 20B |
21C | 22D | 23D | 24B | 25A |
26C | 27C | 28C | 29C | 30B |
31C | 32C | 33B | 34B | 35D |