Bộ đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 - 2022 có đáp án (16 đề)

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

( Đề số 1)

Exercise 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 1: The government's interference in the strike has been widely criticised.

A. disapproval             B. intervention

C. limitation                D. postponement

Question 2: The emblem of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations was designed basing on rice - the most important crop for the Southeast Asian people.

A. banner                   B. logo

C. motto                    D. slogan

Question 3: The scholarship is renewed annually and may be stopped if the students have poor academic records or bad behaviours.

A. every day                  B. every month

C. every week                D. every year

Question 4: In Thailand, it's against the law to litter on the pavement. If you are caught, you can be fined up to $2000 Baht.

A evil                              B. illegal

C. immoral                    D. wrong

Question 5: The beautiful sights in Sa Pa, Mui Ne and Ha Noi all contribute to the country's magic charm.

A. beauty                      B. fame

C. image                      D. value

Exercise 2. Mark the letter A. B. C. or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6: It is no use ____ a girl that she doesn't need to lose any weight.

A. convince                           B. convincing

C. to convince                       D. to convincing

Question 7: I have much homework that I ought ____.

A. do                              B. to doing

C. doing                     D. to do

Question 8: She did a funny little curtsy which Josh and Silver couldn't help ____ at.

A. laugh                       B. laughing

C. to laugh                   D. to laughing

Question 9: We are looking forward ____ out at the weekend.

A. go.                       B. going

C. to go                    D. to going

Question 10: You should give up ____ your sister.

A. being bullied               B. bullied

C. bullying                      D. to bully

Exercise 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 11: A. athlete           B. capital             

                       C. stalk           D. talent

Question 12: A. emblem         B. member           

                        C. regret          D. theme

Question 13: A. August           B. gerund             

                         C. purpose        D. suggest

Question 14: A. dream             B. mean               

                        C. peace             D. steady

Question 15: A. consist             B. disable             

                        C. suggest          D. vision

Exercise 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 16: “It's so stuffy in here." – “____”

A. Do I have to open the window?

B. Must I open the window?

C. Shall I open the window?

D. Would you like to open the window?

Question 17: “Merry Christmas!" – “____”

A. Happy Christmas to you!            B. Same for you!

C. The same to you!                         D. You are the same!

Question 18: "I will pick you up around 7:30. The movie starts at 8:00." – “____”

A. No, you don't

B. OK. See you then.

C. I don't like waiting.

D. Thanks, no big deal.

Question 19: "____ going on a picnic this weekend?" - "That's great!"

A. How about                B. Let's

C. Why don't we            D. Would you like

Question 20: "Mr Green had an accident. He's been in hospital for a week.” – “____”

A. How terrific            B. Oh, is he?

C. Poor it.                   D. Poor him.

Exercise 5. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The 22nd Southeast Asian Games were held in Viet Nam from the 5th to 13th December, 2003. Although it was the first time Viet Nam hosted such a big sports event, the Games were a great success. The Games really became a festival that impressed sports enthusiasts with its spirit: solidarity, co-operation for peace and development.

Athletes from 11 participating countries competed in 32 sports, and 444 gold medals were won. Some teams such as table tennis, badminton, karate, volleyball, basketball and wrestling were composed of top competitors in the region. Many Games records were close to international levels. Viet Nam won 158 gold medals to finish at the top of the Southeast Asian Games medal standings. Thailand ranked second with 90 golds, and Indonesia was third with only 55 golds. Singapore and Viet Nam were the two nations which had participants who were presented with the Most Outstanding Athlete titles in the Swimming and Shooting events. The Vietnamese Women's Football team successfully defended the SEA Games title. Viet Nam and Thailand played in the Men's Football Final. The Thai Team won the gold medal. In other sports such as karate, athletics, bodybuilding and wushu, the young and energetic Vietnamese athletes performed excellently and won a lot of gold medals.

Viet Nam's first place finish was not surprising. Firstly, to prepare for the 22nd SEA Games, Viet Nam carried out an intensive programme for its athletes, which included training in facilities, both home and abroad. Secondly, with the strong support of their countrymen, the Vietnamese athletes competed in high spirits. The country's success has proved that Viet Nam can organise sporting events on an international level. A plan has been proposed for Viet Nam to host the Asia Sports Games at some point in the future.

Question 21: It can be inferred from the passage that ____.

A. Viet Nam can organise sporting events better than other countries

B. Viet Nam had already planned for the next Sea Games in the future

C. Viet Nam prepared its athletes well for the 22nd SEA Games

D. Viet Nam protected its first place in SEA Games competition

Question 22: The word "title" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. power             B. label

C. headline          D. trophy

Question 23: According to the passage, what is NOT true about the 22nd Southeast Asian Games?

A. There were 11 countries participating in.

B. Many athletes had broken the world records.

C. Indonesia ranked higher than Singapore.

D. Vietnamese Women's Football team won gold medal.

Question 24: The word "intensive” in paragraph 3 has OPPOSITE meaning to ____.

A. delicate             B. flexible

C. sensitive           D. vigorous

Question 25: What is the writer's main purpose in writing this passage?

A. To explain the reasons why 22nd Sea Games was organised in Viet Nam.

B. To express the writer's love and how much he is proud of the country's success.

C. To introduce top competitors in the region and their ranking in the Games.

D. To show Vietnamese's ability in organising international sporting events.

Exercise 6. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: I said that she should see a doctor.

A. I advised her seeing a doctor.

B. I advised her should see a doctor.

C. I advised her to see a doctor.

D. I advised to see a doctor.

Question 27: Ireland doesn't allow people to smoke in bars.

A. Ireland doesn't enjoy smoking in bars.

B. Ireland hates smoking in bars.

C. Smoking in bars is banned in Ireland.

D. You should not smoke in bars in Ireland.

Question 28: Working on the computer is not what she feels like.

A. She doesn't feel like work on the computer.

B. She doesn't feel like working on the computer.

C. She doesn't feel like to work on the computer.

D. She doesn't feel like to working on the computer.

Question 29: California doesn't permit people to fish without a fishing license.

A. California can't stand fishing without a fishing license.

B. California doesn't allow fishing without a fishing license.

C. California doesn't encourage fishing without a fishing license.

D. California doesn't mind fishing without a fishing license.

Question 30: “Why don't we go for a walk?" Mary said.

A. Mary advised to go for a walk.

B. Mary asked going for a walk.

C. Mary suggested going for a walk.

D. Mary would like going for a walk.

Đáp án

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Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

( Đề số 2)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 1: Mrs. Stevens, along with (A) her cousins (B) from Canada, are (C) planning to attend (D) the firework display in Da Nang, Vietnam.

Question 2: If one type of manufacturing expands (A), it is like (B) that another (C) type will shrink considerably (D).

Question 3: For thousands of years, man (A) has created sweet-smelling (B) substances from wood, herbs and flowers and using them (C) for perfumes or (D) medicine.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 4: I was tired when you saw me because I____for the exam.

A. studied                              B. have been studying

C. had been studying             D. would study

Question 5: Mountain gorillas are an endangered species ______ habitats are being badly destroyed.

A. why                    B. whose

C. which                 D. that

Question 6: His speech was careful and______, but his words seemed to make no sense.

A. distinctive               B. distinction

C. distinct                     D. distinguish

Question 7: The more he insisted he was innocent, _________ they seemed to believe him

A. the less                  B. the least

C. the little                D. the most

Question 8: The storm is reported ___________ people.

A. to kill                              B. to be killed

C. to have killed five           D. to have been killed

Question 9: Species become extinct or endangered for _______ number of reasons, but the primary cause is the destruction of habitat by human activities.

A. ∅                 B. a

C. the                D. an

Question 10: Make sure you ______ up the data on your computer, because you might get a virus.

A. back             B. store

C. save               D. copy

Question 11: This winter wasn’t_______ as difficult as last winter.

A. almost               B. nearly

C. closely                D. just

Question 12: Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a ____ town.

A. small beautiful Midwestern

B. beautiful Midwestern small

C. Midwestern beautiful small

D. beautiful small Midwestern

Question 13: The hotel was terrible, but the wonderful beach_____ our disappointment.

A. came down with           B. made up for

C. got through to              D. faced up to

Question 14: When it started to snow, he________ his overcoat.

A. took out              B. put off

C. took off              D. put on

Question 15: Some scientists say that it is still not too late to minimize the effects of climate change_____enough money and effort are invested in correct projects.

A. in case                 B. so that

C. even if                 D. provided that

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 16: Thomas and Peter are meeting after a long time.

Thomas: “How have you been recently?” Peter: “_____”

A. I am going on holiday next week.

B. Pretty busy, I think.

C. By car, usually.

D. I am working here.

Question 17: George and Frankie are talking about their hobbies.

George: “In my opinion, action films are exciting”. Frankie: “_____”

A. What are opinion!

B. There‟s no doubt about it.

C. Yes, you can do it.

D. Your opinion is exactly.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the bold and underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 18: We decided to pay for the car on the installment plan.

A. cash and carry               B. monthly payment

C. credit card                     D. piece by piece

Question 19: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!

A. altogether                  B. specifically

C. thoroughly                 D. considerably

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold and underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 20: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.

A. strongly condemned               B. publicly said

C. openly criticized                     D. publicly supported

Question 21: Names of the people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.

A. reveal                     B. cover

C. presume                 D. conserve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 22: A. village          B. luggage    

                     C. engage             D. damage

Question 23: A. swallowed        B. practiced   

                  C. finished                  D. punched

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 24: A. equal     B. campus    

                      C.danger     D. perform

Question 25: A. atmosphere                        B. information

                       C. understanding                   D. entertainment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 26: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days. Jasmine."

A. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days' rest.

B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.

C. Jasmine's doctor told that she should rest for a few days.

D. It is the doctor's recommendation that Jasmine should take a short rest.

Question 27: The last time I saw her was three years ago.

A. I have seen her for the last three years.

B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.

C. I haven’t seen her for three years.

D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her again.

Question 28: It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.

A. You should have persuaded him to change his mind.

B. You must have persuaded him to change his mind.

C. You should persuade him to change his mind.

D. You may persuade him to change his mind.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: He failed his driving test the first time. As a result, he took it again.

A. He failed his driving test the first time and so he therefore took it again.

B. He failed his driving test the first time and he therefore took it again.

C. He failed his driving test the first time which he took it again.

D. Failing his driving test the first time and he therefore took it again.

Question 30: You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late.

A. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.

B. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.

C. You'd better take the keys as I possibly come home late.

D. I'll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

A surprising number of popular spectator sports, for example football or baseball, (31)______ in Europe or the USA in the nineteenth century. This did not happen by chance. It was the (32) ______ of changes in the way people lived in those places at that time. Until then, more people lived In the country than in towns. They worked in small groups and had no regular time off. All this changed with the growth of factories and industry in the nineteenth century, first in Europe and (33) ______. In the USA. For the first time, most people began to live in towns, and they found themselves with regular free time. They had more leisure time than ever before. This resulted in the need for organized entertainment. Suitable games developed or were invented, typically team games, in which the crowd could (34) ______ sides and become involved. This gave people some of the entertainment they need in their free time. The recent explosion in TV, with the introduction of satellite and cable channels, has caused an increase in (35) ______ for sports as entertainment. The money TV has broughtto games such as football, tennis and baseball means that spectator sports will certainly go on playing an important part in our lives.

Question 31: A. started     B. stemmed    

                      C. appeared     D. came

Question 32: A. result     B. cause    

                     C. reason     D. effect

Question 33: A. lately     B. next   

                      C. second     D. then

Question 34: A. choose     B. take    

                     C. select     D. decide

Question 35: A. requirement     B. need    

                       C. request     D. demand

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The advent of the Internet may be one of the most important technological developments in recent years. Never before have so many people had access to so many different sources of information. For all of the Internet’s advantages, however, people are currently becoming aware of some of its drawbacks and are looking for creative solutions. Among the current problems, which include a general lack of reliability and numerous security concerns, the most crucial is speed.

First of all, the Internet has grown very quickly. In 1990, only a few academics had ever heard of the Internet. In 1996, over 50 million people used it. Every year, the number of people with access to the Internet doubles. The rapid growth has been a problem. The computer systems which run the Internet have not been able to keep up with the demand. Also, sometimes, a request for information must pass through many routing computers before the information can be obtained. A request for information made in Paris might have to go through computers in New York, Los Angeles and Tokyo in order to obtain the

required information. Consequently, the service is often slow and unpredictable. Service also tends to be worse when the Internet is busiest - during the business day of the Western Hemisphere - which is also when companies need its service the most.

Some people are trying to harness the power of networked computers in such a way as to avoid this problem. In 1995, a group of American universities banded together to form what has come to be known as Internet II. Internet II is a smaller, more specialized system intended for academic use. Since it is more specialized, fewer users are allowed access. Consequently, the time required to receive information has decreased.

Businesses are beginning to explore a possible analogue to the Internet II. Many businesses are creating their own “Intranets”. These are systems that can only be used by the members of the same company. In theory, fewer users should translate into a faster system. Intranets are very useful for large national and international companies whose branches need to share information. Another benefit of an Intranet is an increased amount of security. Since only company employees have access to the information on the Intranet, their information is protected from competitors. While there is little doubt that the Internet will

eventually be a fast and reliable service, industry and the academic community have taken their own steps toward making more practical global networks.

Question 36: In the passage, which of the following ts NOT true of the Internet?

A. It has become increasingly less popular.

B. It has created a sense of financial security

C. It tends to be unreliable

D. It is sometimes too slow to access

Question 37: As it can be inferred from the passage, what benefits does Internet II have over the Internet I?

A. Small businesses pay higher premiums to access to the Internet

B. Internet II contains more information than the Internet.

C. Internet II has fewer users and therefore is faster to access

D. There is no governmental intervention regulating Internet II.

Question 38: The word "analogue" in paragraph 5 most nearly means_____.

A. solution     B. alternative

C. similarity     D. use

Question 39: The word “harness" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

A. block    B. steal

C. utilize     D. disguise

Question 40: According to the author, what is one reason why the Internet is sometimes slow?

A. Phone lines are often too busy with phone calls and fax transmissions to handle Internet traffic.

B. Most people do not have computers that are fast enough to take advantage of the Internet.

C. Often a request must travel through many computers before it reaches its final destination.

D. Scientists take up too much time on the Internet, thus slowing it down for everyone else.

Đáp án

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Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

( Đề số 3)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the followings.

Question 1: A. summary              B. different    

                 C. physical                   D. decision

Question 2: A. attractiveness     B. traditional    

                    C. generation           D. American

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 3: John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” – Anna: “.............!”

A. Better luck next time

B. It’s none of my business

C. Congratulations

D. That was nice of you.

Question 4: Tom: “Wasn't it Mozart who composed Swan Lake?” Jane: “__________.”

A. Yes, he wasn't

B. It's out of question

C. I haven't a clue

D. It's not my favourite

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 5: In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war.

A. mounted    B. excited

C. devoted    D. interested

Question 6: If you do not understand the word "superstitious, look it up in the dictionary.

A. find its meaning     B. write it

C. draw it                    D. note it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.

To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always (7) ___ joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you. Your best friend may be someone you have known all your life or someone you have grown (8) ____with.

There are all sorts of things that can (9)____about this special relationship. It may be the result of enjoying the same activities and sharing experiences. Most of us have met someone that we have immediately felt relaxed with as if we had known them for ages.____(10), it really takes you years to get to know someone well enough to consider your best friend. To the ____(11)of us, this is someone we trust completely and who understands us better than anyone else. It's the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets.

Question 7: A. have     B. share     C. give    D. spend

Question 8: A. up     B. through     C. on     D. in

Question 9: A. provide     B. bring     C. cause     D. result

Question 10: A. Therefore     B. In addition     C. However     D. Yet

Question 11: A. majority    B. major     C. majorial     D. majorially

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them – their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.

Question 12: The passage is mainly about

A. How the Beatles became more successful than other groups

B. Why the Beatles split up after 7 years

C. The Beatles’ fame and success

D. Many people’s ability to sing a Beatles song

Question 13: The four boys of the Beatles

A. Came from the same family

B. Were at the same age

C. Came from a town in the north of England

D. Received good training in music

Question 14: The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to

A. Notorious     B. Bad

C. Shocking     D. Popular

Question 15: The first songs of the Beatles were____

A. Written by themselves

B. Broadcast on the radio

C. Paid a lot of money

D. Written by black Americans

Question 16: What is not true about the Beatles?

A. The members had no training in music

B. They had a long stable career

C. They became famous when they wrote their own songs

D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans

Question 17: The Beatles stopped their live performances because

A. They had earned enough money

B. They did not want to work with each other

C. They spent more time writing their own songs

D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans.

Question 18: The tone of the passage is that of

A. Admiration     B. Criticism

C. Neutral     D. Sarcasm

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that has different pronunciation from the rest in each of the followings.

Question 19: A. waited     B. mended     C. objected    D. faced

Question 20: A. bushes     B. buses     C. lorries     D. charges

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 21: The better (A) you are at (B) English, the more chance (C) you have to get a job (D)

Question 22: He is (A) the (B) second person be killed (C) in that way (D)

Question 23: I’m very glad (A) that you’ve done (B) lots of (C) progress (D) this semester.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.

Question 24: ______ he is not rich, he wants to travel around the world.

A. In spite of     B. Although

C. Despite    D.Because

Question 25: Donald Trump has suggested he could grant legal status to millions of undocumented immigrants who have not ______ serious crimes in what would be a major policy shift.

A. committed     B. took

C. served     D. done

Question 26: All students should be ______ and literate when they leave school.

A. numeric     B. numeral

C. numerous     D. numerate

Question 27: Mr. Jones knew who had won the contest, but he kept it under his ______ until it was announced publicly.

A. cap     B. tongue

C. hat     D. umbrella

Question 28: When a women works outside the home and makes money herself, she is ________ independent from her husband.

A. financially    B. politically

C. philosophically     D. variously

Question 29: A woman's role in society was defined by the Feminists on whether they were contributors ________ society or not.

A. upon     B. to

C. off     D. away

Question 30: The organization was ___________ in 1950 in the USA.

A. come around     B. set up

C. made out     D. put on

Question 31: Do you need to give your speech another_________ or do you already know it by heart?

A. break-down     B. check-up

C. run-through     D. mix-up

Question 32: Larry drove all night to get here for his sister's wedding. He ___ exhausted by the time he arrived.

A. must have been     B. could be

C. ought to be     D. will have been

Question 33: He had spent ____ time writing an essay on his childhood.

A. a few     B. a large number of

C. a great deal of     D. many

Question 34: When___________at this store, the buyers get a guarantee on all items

A. purchased     B. purchase

C. purchasing     D. having purchased

Question 35: ____ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would willingly have helped with the project.

A. If it were     B. If it hadn’t been

C. were it to be     D. Hadn’t it been

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 36 “Where are you spending your holidays?” Janet asked us.

A. Janet asked us where we were spending our holidays.

B. Janet asked us where were we spending our holidays.

C. Janet asked us where you were spending your holidays.

D. Janet asked us where we were spending your holidays

Question 37: Be he rich or poor, she will marry him

A. She doesn’t want to marry him because he is poor

B. She wants to marry him if he is rich

C. She will marry him whether he is rich or poor

D. She will marry him however poor he may be

Question 38: Many people think Steve stole the money.

A. The money is thought to be stolen by Steve.

B. Steve is thought to have stolen the money.

C. Many people think the money is stolen by Steve.

D. It was not Steve who stole the money.

Question 39: The children were attracted by the show. It was performed by the animals.

A. The children attracted by the show which was performed by the animals.

B. The children were attracted by the show to have been performed by the animals.

C. The show performing by the animals attracted the children.

D. The children were attracted by the show performed by the animals.

Question 40: “We preserve natural resources. We can use them in the future.” means_____.

A. We preserve natural resources so that we can use them in the future

B. We preserve natural resources so as to we can use them in the future

C. We preserve natural resources in order to we can use them in the future

D. We preserve natural resources for fear that we can use them in the future

Đáp án

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Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề khảo sát chất lượng Giữa kì 1

Năm học 2021 - 2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

( Đề số 4)

Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 1: The skin receives nearly (A) the (B) third of the blood pumped out (C) by (D) the heart.

Question 2: I had (A) my motorbike repair (B) yesterday but now (C) it still doesn’t work (D).

Question 3: If you are working with (A) young children in a primary (B) school, you will find (C) teaching lively songs and rhymes are (D) very popular.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 4: The next meeting _________ in May.

A. will hold              B. will be held

C. will be holding     D. will have held

Question 5: The librarian told us not _________ reference books out of the library.

A. taking     B. to take

C. take     D. took

Question 6: My responsibility is to _________ my little brothers.

A. take care of     B. join hands

C. take over     D. work together

Question 7: In Vietnam, two or more ________ may live in a home.

A. generations     B. generous

C. generation     D. generators

Question 8: __________ candidates are likely to succeed in job interviews.

A. Nervous     B. Self-conscious

C. Self-doubt     D. Self-confident

Question 9: A good essay must __________contain enough interesting ideas and specific exam but also have good organization.

A. in addition     B. either

C. not only     D. as well

Question 10: The ground is wet. It ________ rained last night.

A. must     B. must have

C. may have     D. might have

Question 11: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is ______.

A. another     B. other

C. the another     D. the other.

Question 12: Do you know the woman ______ lives next door?

A. she     B. who

C. whom     D. her

Question 13: If you _______ less last night, you _______ so bad today.

A. had drunk- would not have felt

B. drank- would not feel

C. had drunk- would not feel

D. would have drunk- would not feel

Question 14: I can’t sleep ________ the hot weather.

A. because of     B. as

C. because     D. since

Question 15: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as _________.

A. cats and dogs     B. chalk and cheese

C. salt and pepper     D. here and there

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 16: A. Epidemic    B. Illegal    

                      C. Education     D. Competitor

Question 17: A. Compose    B. Opponent    

                      C. Wholesale     D. Colony

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 18: A. Discuss    B. Waving    

                      C. Airport     D. Often

Question 19: A. Interview    B. Difficulty    

                      C. Simplicity     D. Beautiful

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: John: "Congratulations! You did great. Mary: - " ___________.”

A. It’s nice of you to say so.

B. It’s my pleasure.

C. You’re welcome.

D. That’s okay.

Question 21: Minh : " My first English test was not as good as I expected " Thomas : " _________."

A. Good Heavens!

B. Never mind , better job next time!

C. That's brilliant enough!

D. It's okay. Don't worry.

Read the following sentences and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Question 22: They don’t know much knowledge of the jobs of their choice.

A. They have little knowledge of the jobs of their choice.

B. They have a few knowledge about the jobs of their choice.

C. They have few knowledge of the jobs of their choice.

D. They don’t have much knowledge of the jobs of their choice.

Question 23: Hardly are appeals allowed against the council’s decisions.

A. It’s too hard for the council to allow appeals against its decisions.

B. The council always allows appeals against its decisions.

C. Allowing appeals against its decisions is not good.

D. The council rarely allows appeals against its decision.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. be related to                B. be interested in

C. pay all attention to     D. express interest in

Question 25: “He insisted on listening to the entire story”.

A. part     B. funny

C. whole     D. interesting

Read of the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use it in our cars and to heat our building in winter. Farmers use petrochemicals to (26) ____ the soil rich. They use them to kill insects which eat plants. These chemicals go (27) ______ rivers and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (28) _____ air to other countries and other continents.

Poor farmers use the same land over and over The land needs a rest so it will be better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests for firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land (29) ______ desert. Poor people can’t save the environment for the future .

This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all- humans. The people and the nations of the world must work together to (30) _______ the world’s resources.

Question 26: A. work    B. change     C. make     D. let

Question 27: A. out     B. for     C. at     D. into

Question 28: A. pollute    B. polluting     C. polluted     D. pollution

Question 29: A. gets    B. changes     C. turns     D. becomes

Question 30: A. recycle    B. preserve     C. keep     D. reuse

Đáp án

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Mời quý vị độc giả tải bộ đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 Giữa học kì 1 năm 2021 có đáp án (16 đề ) để xem đầy đủ và chi tiết!